SSC CHSL LDC/ DEO/ PSA Previous Year Solved Papers – 10 November, 2013
SSC CHSL Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level LDC & Data Entry Operator, Exam Solved Paper 10 November, 2013
Part I General Intelligence
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-7) In questions select the related letters / word / number from the given alternatives.
1. KNOT : LORU :: ADGJ : ?
2. DRIVEN : NEVIRD :: BEGUM : ?
3. Smell: Flower :: Taste : ?
4. Introvert: Extrovert:: ?
(a) Angle : Tangent
(b) Extreme : Interim
(c) Against: Favour
(d) Action : Law
(c) Introvert is antonym of Extrovert. Similarly, Against is antonym of Favour.
5. Smoke : Pollution :: War : ?
6. 12 : 30 :: 18 : ?
7. 85 : 40 :: 77 : ?
Directions (Q.Nos. 8-11) In questions find the odd letters / words / number pair from the given alternatives.
(a) Day: Night
(b) Up: Down
(c) Across: Along
(d) Small: Large
(c) Day-Night, Up-Down and Small – large word pairs denote the opposite relationship among them. But Across and Along are synonym.
(d) Except plane, all items have height.
(a)5 – 21
(b)29 – 45
(c)48 – 68
(d)71 – 87
12. In the following letter series, how many BCN occur in such a way, that C is in the middle and B and N are on any one side?
(d) BCMXNCXNBXNCBNCBYBCXNBCNA BONMZCB
So, there are 3 ‘BCN’ occur in such a way, that C is in the middle and B and N are on any one side.
13. Find out the set among the four sets which like the given set
Given set is (6:12:18)
(b) (12 : 24 : 36)
(c) (6 : 20 : 26)
(d) (30 : 36 : 42)
14. Which one of the given responses would be meaningful order of the following in ascending order?
1. Sending 2. Encoding 3.Receiving 4. Decoding
(b) 4, 2, 1,3
15. Arrange the following words as per order in the English dictionary
1. Important 2. Impart
3. Improve 4. Improve
(a) 1,2, 3, 4
(c) 3, 4,1,2
16. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it? bc_bca_cab_ab_a_ca
Directions (Q.Nos. 17-19) In questions a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
17. DKY, FJW, HIU, JHS, ?
18. 7, 8, 11, 16, 23, ?
19. 3, 9, 6, 36, 30, ?
20. If January 1 is a Friday, what is the first day of the month of March in a leap year?
21. Barun is taller than Sanjay. Bipul is taller than Barun. Krishna is also not as tall as Bipul, but is taller than Barun. Who is the tallest?
22. Rajan is younger than his father by 20 yr. 5 yr ago his father was 3 times elder than him. Find the present age of his father.
(a) 25 yr
(b) 30 yr
(c) 35 yr
(d) 36 yr
(c) The present age of father in 35 yr.
23. Sunita is the 11th from either end of a row of girls. How many girls are there in that row?
(c) The total number of girls = 11 + 11 – 1= 22 – 1= 21
24. A man said to a woman, “The only son of your brother, is the brother of my wife.” How is that woman related to the wife of that man?
25. If B = 2, BAG = 10, then BOX = ?
26. If DISC is coded as 8749 and ACHE is coded as 3950, then HEAD is coded as
27. In a certain code ‘CALANDER’ is written as ‘CLANAEDR’. How is ‘CIRCULAR’ written in that code?
28. Some capital letters are given below in the first line and numbers are assigned to each of them in the second line. The numbers are the codes for the letters and vice-versa.
M O E A S J T Z
3 5 7 6 2 9 4 0
Choose the correct number code for the given set of letters EAST
29. From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters given in the word. COMPANIONSHIP
30. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. PUNISHMENT
Directions (Q.Nos. 31 and 32) In questions select the missing number from the given responses.
63 7 9
30 5 6
20 4 ?
24 25 50
24 20 10
4 9 3
12 5 ?
Directions (Q.Nos. 33 and 34) In questions some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On that basis find out the correct answer for unsolved equation.
33. 3 x 9 x 7 = 379,5 x 4 x 8 = 584,1 x 2 x 3 = ?
34. If 526 = 9 and 834 = 9, then 716 = ?
(d) As, 526 in 5 + 6 – 2 = 9 and 834 in 8 + 4 – 3 = 9
Similarly 716 in 7 + 6 – 1=12
35. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace ‘*’ signs and to balance the given equation. 24*34*2*5*12
(a) + ÷ x =
(b) = ÷ + –
(c) = ÷ – +
(d) + ÷ = x
(c) According to the option (c),
24 = 34 ÷ 2 — 5 + 12 => 24 = 17 – 5 + 12
24 = 29 – 5; 24 = 24
36. If + means ‘minus’,- means ‘multiply’,’÷’ means ‘plus’ and x means ‘divide’, then
10 x 5 ÷ 3 – 2 + 3 = ?
(a) ? = 10 x 5 ÷ 3 – 2 + 3= 10 ÷ 5 + 3 x 2 – 3
=2+3 x 2 – 3=2 + 6 – 3=8 – 3=5
37. One morning Meena started walking towards the Sun. After walking a while she turned towards her left and again towards her left. After walking a while, she turned left. In which direction is she facing now?
38. Vijay starts walking straight towards East. After walking 75 m he turns to the left and walks 25 m straight. Again , he turns to the left and walks a distance of 40 m straight. Again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 25 m. How far is he from the starting point?
39. One statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statement. Indicate your answer. Statement Medals are awards.
Conclusions I. All awards are not medals.
II. All medals received are called awards.
(a) Only Conclusion I follows
(b) Only Conclusion II follows
(c) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
40. Which of the conclusions can be drawn from the given statements?
Statements All the students in my class are intelligent.
Kaushik is not intelligent.
(a) Some students are not intelligent
(b) Non-intelligent are not students
(c) Kaushik is not a student of my class
(d) All other than Kaushik are intelligent
41. At a birthday party, 5 friends are sitting in a row. ‘M’ is to the left of ‘0’ and to the right of ‘P’. ‘S’ is sitting to the right of T, but to the left of ‘P’. Who is sitting in the middle?
42. A machine which cuts a ribbon into pieces of 10 m takes 6 s to make a single cut. How long will it take to completely cut into pieces a ribbon 3 km long?
(a) 174 s
(c) 1794 s
(d) 1800 s
43. Select the related figure from the given alternatives.
44. Select the figure which is different from the rest three
46. Select the missing number from the given responses.
47. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the classes given below TEA, COFFEE, DRINK
48. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
49. A piece of paper is folded and cut/punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
50. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
Part II English Language
Directions (Q.Nos. 51-55) In questions some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (d) in the Answer Sheet.
51. The redevelopment project is aimed (a)/ not just providing good houses to shanty dwellers (b)/ but also developing infrastructure around the major Mumbai localities, (c)/ No error (d)
52. Unless he apologises (a)/ he should not be (b)/ allowed to stay with us. (c)/ No error (d)
53. I met the gentleman (a)/ today morning on my way (b)/ to the market, (c)/ No error (d)
54. She regards (a)/ negotiating prices with customers (b)/ as her special expertise, (c)/ No error (d)
55. The police is investigating (a)/ for the recent happening (b) / in the area, (c)/ No error (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In questions sentences are given with, blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval in the Answer Sheet.
56. The more he remonstrated__the referee the worse the situation became.
57. Our teacher encouraged__setting the poem to music.
58. He would not have been successful in the project but___my help.
59. Internet cafe owners fear that a police crackdown may cause____damage to their business.
60. We heard that the Richards ___ their house recently.
(a) had shifted
(b) have shifted
(c) will shift
(d) are shifting
Directions (Q. Nos. 61 and 62) In questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Directions (Q. Nos. 63 and 64) In questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Directions (Q. Nos. 65 and 66) In questions four words are given in each question out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
Directions (Q.Nos. 67-69) In questions four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
67. The mother was right in giving a piece of her mind to the daughter.
(a) speaking kindly
(b) speaking cheerfully
(c) speaking sadly
(d) speaking sharply
68. After getting a severe scolding from his mother, Raghu got down to business.
(a) started a business
(b) became businesslike
(c) began to work seriously
(d) joined his father’s business
69. The young servant goes about with the old master.
(a) moves around
(b) goes around
(c) tries to know more about
(d) adjusts well
Directions (Q. Nos. 70-72) In questions out of the four alternatives choose the one which can he substituted for the given words /sentence.
70. A medicine to nullify the effect of poison.
71. An assembly of worshippers.
72. A person who lives by himself.
Directions (Q. Nos. 73 and 74) In questions a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given I alternatives to the underlined part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
73. Complete the formalities of registration of the workshop before you enter the hall.
(a) formalities of registration for
(b) formalities to registering for
(c) formalities to register for
(d) No improvement
74. If a man remains as careful as he is in the beginning, there will be no failure.
(a) he at the beginning
(b) he in the beginning
(c) he was in the beginning
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. Nos. 75-79) In questions a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive /Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
75. Then her face was bowed.
(a) Then she was being bowed her face
(b) Her face was bowed by then
(c) Then she bowed her face
(d) Then her face has been bowed
76. The walls had not been decorated by us.
(a) We have not been decorating the walls
(b) We had not been decorating the walls
(c) We have not decorated the walls
(d) We had not decorated the walls
77. I shall have written the letter.
(a) The letter will be written by me
(b) The letter has been written by me
(c) The letter is being written by me
(d) The letter will have been written by me
78. We must endure what we cannot cure.
(a) What we cure must be endured
(b) What cannot be cured must be endured
(c) What cannot cured must endured
(d) What could be cure must be endured
79. A fresh batch of eggs was collected by the farmers’s wife.
(a) The farmer’s wife was collecting a fresh batch of eggs
(b) The farmer’s wife collected a fresh batch of eggs
(c) The farmer’s wife had collected a fresh batch of eggs
(d) The farmer’s wife will be collecting, a fresh batch of eggs
Directions (Q. Nos. 80-84) In questions a sentence has been given in Direct/ Indirect/ Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
80. Ashmita advised me to go and see a doctor.
(a) Ashmita asked me, “Will you go and see a doctor?”
(b) Ashmita told me, “Go and see the doctor’
(c) “Shouldn’t you go and see a doctor?” asked Ashmita
(d) “You should go and see a doctor,” said Ashmita
81. Suresh asked Prasad whether he had watched the cricket match on television the previous night?
(a) Suresh asked Prasad, “Have you watched the cricket match on television last night?”
(b) Suresh said to Prasad, “Did you watch the cricket match on television last night?”
(c) Suresh said to Prasad, “Did you watched the cricket match on television last night?”
(d) Suresh asked Prasad, “Did you watch the cricket match on television previous night?”
82. Father said to me, “You are idling away your time.”
(a) Father told me that I am idling away my time .
(b) Father told me that you are idling away your time
(c) Father told me that you were idling away your time
(d) Father told me that I was idling away my time
83. The captain said to his men, ‘Tall into line.”
(a) The captain warned his men to fall into line
(b) The captain told his men that they should fall into line
(c) The captain said to his men that they can fall into line
(d) The captain commanded his men to fall into line
84. The priest said, “May God pardon this sinner.”
(a) The priest prayed if God will pardon that sinner
(b) The priest said that God might pardon the sinner
(c) The priest prayed that God would pardon this sinner
(d) The priest prayed that God might pardon that sinner
Directions (Q. Nos. 85-90) In questions the first and the last sentences of the passage / parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage / Sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the passage / sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then, find the correct answer and indicate it by blackening the appropriate ovel in the Answer Sheet.
85. 1. The first illness I read about was cholera.
P. I sat for a while, too frightened to move.
Q. I came to malaria.
R. As I read the list of symptoms, it seemed to me that perhaps I had cholera myself.
S. Then, in a land of dream, I started to turn the pages of the book again.
6. Yes, there was no doubt about it had malaria too.
86. 1. Lata was caught in a traffic jam.
P. Would she really have to miss the interview?
Q. But the vehicles on either side looked as though they would be there forever.
R. The reason was that she was due to appear for an interview in less than half-an-hour.
S. She was fretting : she could not afford to be late.
6. Or, worse—would she arrive late and create a bad first impression?
87. 1. The lion used to be very widely distributed in Africa and Asia.
P. There are special forest zenes set aside for wild-life in various countries.
Q. Indiscriminate killing has caused the number to fall.
R. Today they are a relatively rare species.
5. If the species survives at all, it will be only in national parks.
6. No hunting is permitted in such reserved areas.
88. 1. After the tornado had hit the coastal areas,
P. my house was gone,
Q. I became a pauper overnight,
R. my fields were completely destroyed,
S. my livestock was lost and
6. though my neighbour’s house remained untouched
89. 1. When you are debating whether to
P. but also helps you stay
Q. take your evening walk or skip it
R. not only keeps your weight in check
S. remember that taking a bng walk 6. calm and relaxed.
90. 1. The enzymes in washing powder
P. making them able to survive
Q. come from bacteria
R. to live in hot springs
S. that have evolved
6. the rigours of the hot cycle.
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In questions in the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.
When I go into a stranger’s library I (91) round the bookshelves. This is to know the type of person he is and I feel that I know the (92) to his mind. A house without books is a (93) house, no matter how rich the carpets are. These only tell you whether he (94) a lot of money, but the books tell you whether he has a mind as well. It is not a (95) of money that we do not buy books.
(d) has had
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) In questions you have a brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate oval in the Answer Sheet.
As the rulers of the planet humans, like to think that it is the large creatures who will emerge victorious from the struggle for survival. However, nature teaches us the opposite : it is often the smallest species which are the toughest and most adaptable. A perfect example is the hummingbird, which is found in the Americas. One species of hummingbird known as the bee hummingbird ranks as the world’s smallest and lightest bird and it is barely visible when it is in flight.
Hummingbirds are the only birds that can fly backwards. They feed mainly on the nectar of flowers, a liquid that is rich in energy. Nectar is an ideal food source, for hummingbirds need an incredible amount of energy to sustain their body metabolism. A hummingbird’s wings flap at a rate of about 80 times per second and its tiny heart beats more than 1000 times per minute. This is why they must consume relatively large quantities of food. In the course of a day, a hummingbird consumes about half its body weight in nectar.
96. Nature has made man realize the fact that
(a) the large creatures emerge victorious from the struggle for survival
(b) the smallest creatures are the toughest and most adaptable
(c) humans who rule the planet are the most powerful beings on Earth
(d) the largest and the smallest species are equally tough and strong
97. Which of the following statements about the bee hummingbird is true?
(a) It is obviously visible when it flies
(b) It escapes our sight when it is in flight
(c) It could fly high beyond the clouds
(d) It cannot be seen when it is in flight
98. Hummingbirds need a lot of energy in order to
(a) maintain their body metabolism
(b) flap their wings and fly backwards
(c) sustain a steady rhythm of heart-beat
(d) win in the struggle for survival
99. The hummingbirds are exclusive in the sense that
(a) they subsist only on nectar
(b) their pulse rate is more than 1000 per minute
(c) they consume half their body weight everyday
(d) they can fly backwards
100. The word ‘incredible’ in the passage means
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
101. In a division sum, the divisor is 3 times the quotient and 6 times the remainder. If the remainder is 2, then the dividend is
103.3√a = 3√26 + √7 + 3√63.Then
(c)a<729 but a>216
104. The number of prime factors in 6333 x 7222 x 8111 is
105. The greatest among 1.5, 1.05, 1.05, 15 is
107. If 120 is 20% of a number, than 120% of that number will be
108. A reduction of 10% in the price of a commodity enables a person to buy 25 kg more for Rs 225. The original price of the commodity per kg was
109. One type of liquid contains 20% water and the second type of liquid contains 35% of water. A glass is filled with 10 parts of first liquid and 4 parts of second liquid. The water in the new mixture in the glass is
(a) 12 1/7%
110.If x:y=3:4 and y:z=3:4,then x+y+z/3z is equal to
112. Zinc and copper are in the ratio 5 : 3 in 400 gm of an alloy. How much of copper (in gms) should be added to make the ratio 5 : 4?
113. The average age of A and B is 20 yr. If A is to be replaced by C, the average would be 19 yr. The average age of C and A is 21 yr. The ages of A, B and C in order (in years) are
(a) 22, 18, 20
(b) 22, 20,18
(c) 18, 22, 20
(d) 18, 20, 22
114. If x, y, z are three sums of money such that y is the simple interest on x and z is the simple interest on y for the same time and at the same rate of interest, then we have
(a) x2 = yz
(b)y2 = zx
115. Mohan sold his watch at 10% loss. If he had sold if for Rs 45 more, he would have made 5% profit. The selling price (in Rs) of the watch was
116. A vendor loses the selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. His loss percent is
(b) 11 1/2%
(c) 12 1/2%
117. Successive discounts of 30% and 20% is equivalent to a single discount of
118. At the beginning of a partnership business, the capital of B was 3/2 times that of A. After 8 months B withdrew 1/2 of his capital and after 10 months A withdrew 1/4 of his capital. At the end of the year, if the profit incurred is Rs 53000 find the amount received by A.
(a) Rs 30000
(b) Rs 23000
(c) Rs 30800
(d) Rs 32000
119. Two trains, of same length are running in parallel tracks in the same direction with speed 60 km/hour and 90 km/hour respectively. The latter completely crosses the former in 30 s. The length of each train (in metres) is
120.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked together for 20 days and then B left. After another 20 days, A finished the remaining work. The number of days in which B alone can finish the work is
122. If 6x – 5y = 13, 7x + 2y = 23, then 11x + 18y =
123. If x + y + z = 13 and x2 + y2 + z2 =69, then the value of xy + z (x + y) is equal to
124. The area of the triangle formed by the graphs of 3x + 4y = 12, x-axis and y-axis (in sq units) is
126. The side QR of an equilateral triangle PQR is produced to the point S in such a way that QR=RS and P is joined to
S. Then, the measure of ∠PSR is
127. ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC. The side BA is produced to D such that AB = AD. If ∠ABC = 30°, then ∠BCD is equal to
128. ABCDis a trapezium in which AB||DC and AB = 2CD. The diagonals AC and BD meet at 0. The ratio of areas of triangles AOB and COD is
(b) 1: 4
(d) 1: √2
129. PQ is a chord of length 8 cm, of a circle with centre O and of radius 5 cm. The tangents at P and Q intersect at a point T. The length of TP is
(a) 10/3 cm
(b) 15/4 cm
(c) 20/3 cm
(d) 21/4 cm
130. If a chord of a circle is equal to the radius of the circle, then the angle subtended by the chord at a point on the minor arc is
131. The length of each side of a rhombus is equal to the length of the side of a square whose diagonal is 40√2 cm. If the lengths of the diagonals of the rhombus are in the ratio 3 : 4, then its area (in cm²) is
132. The altitude drawn to the base of an isosceles triangle is 8 cm and its perimeter is 64 cm. The area (in cm²) of the triangle is
133. Three solid iron cubes of edges 4 cm, 5 cm and 6 cm are melted together to make a new cube. 62 cm³ of the melted material is lost due to improper handling. The area (in cm²) of the whole surface of the newly formed cube is
134. If the ratio of volumes of two cones is 2 : 3 and the ratio of the radii of their bases is 1: 2, then the ratio of their heights will be
(a) 3: 8
(b) 8: 3
135. A right pyramid stands on a base 16 cm square and its height is 15 cm. The area (in cm²) of its slant surface is
136. The sum of interior angles of a regular polygon is 1440°. The number of sides of the polygon is
137. The base of a right prism is a right-angled triangle whose sides are 5 cm, 12 cm, 13 cm. If the area of the total surface of the prism is 360 cm², then its height (in cm) is
138. The product cos 1° cos 2° cos 3° cos 4° … cos 100° is equal to
139. The greatest value of sin4θ + cos4θ is
140.If 3 sinθ + 5cosθ = 5, then 5sinθ-3cosθ is equal to
(d) ± 5
141.If sinθ + sin2θ =1, then the value of cos2θ + cos4θ is
142. From two points on the ground and lying on a straight line through the foot of a pillar, the two angles of elevation of the top of the pillar are complementary to each other. If the distances of the two points from the foot of the pillar are 9 m and 16 m and the two points lie on the same side of the pillar, then the height of the pillar is
(a) 7 m
(b) 12 m
144. LCM of two numbers is 2079 and their HCF is 27. If one of the numbers is 189, the other number is
145. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hr. After working together for 2 hr, C is closed and A and B fill the tank in 8 hr. The time (in hours) in which the tank can be filled by pipe C alone is
146. The radii of two circles are 10 cm and 24 cm. The radius of a circle whose area is the sum of the areas of these two circles is
(a) 34 cm
(b) 26 cm
(c) 36 cm
(d) 17 cm
Directions (Q.Nos. 147 and 148) The table shows the percentage of total population of a city in different age groups. Study the table and answer questions.
147. If there are 22 million people below 36 yr, then the number of people (in millions) in the age group 56 – 65 is
148. If the difference between the number of people in the age groups 46 – 55 and 16 – 25 is 0.975 million, then the total population (in millions) of the city is
Directions (Q.Nos. 149 and 150) Study the following graph and answer the questions.
149. If the imports of company X in 2007 were increased by 40%, what would be the ratio of exports to the increased imports?
150. In 2005, the exports of company X were double that of company Y in that year. If the imports of company X during the year were Rs 180 crores, what was the amount (in crore Rs) of imports of company Y during the year?
Part IV General Awareness
151. ‘Marginal Cost’ equals
(a) total cost divided by quantity
(b) the change in total cost divided by the change in quantity
(c) total cost minus total benefit for the last unit produced
(d) total cost divided by total benefit for the last unit produced
(c) Marginal cost is the change in the total cost that arises when the quantity produced has an increment by unit. It is the cost of producing one more unit of good.
152. Extreme forms of markets are
(a) Perfect competition; Monopoly
(b) Perfect competition; Monopolistic competition
(c) Perfect competition; Oligopoly
(d) Oligopoly; Monopoly
(a) There are two extreme forms of market structure, monopoly and its opposite perfect competition. Perfect competition is characterised by many buyers and sellers, many products that are similar in nature. A monopoly is a market structure in which there is only one producer/seller for a product.
153. A supply function expresses the relationship between
(a) price and demand
(b) price and consumption
(c) price and output
(d) price and selling cost
(a) The supply function is the mathematical expression of the relationship between supply and those factors that affect the willingness and ability of a supplier to offer goods for sale. .
154. Goods which are meant either for consumption or for investment are called
(a) inferior goods
(b) intermediate goods
(c) final goods .
(d) giffen goods
(b)Intermediate goods used as inputs in the production of other goods, such as partly finished goods. Also, they are goods used in production of final goods, like tyres, sugar, ink etc.
155. Variation in Cash Reserve Ratio and Open Market Operations are instruments of
(a) fiscal policy
(b) monetary policy
(c) budgetary policy
(d) trade policy
(b) Monetary policy is the process by which monetary authority of a country, generally a central bank controls the supply of money in the economy by exercising its control over interest rates in order to maintain price stability and achieve high economic growth. In India, the central monetary authority is the Reserve Bank of India.
156. Who said ‘Man is a social animal’?
(c) Aristotle said, ‘man is a social animal’
157. Name three important forms of Satyagraha.
(a) non-cooperation, revolution and referendum
(b) revolution, plebiscite and boycott
(c) non-cooperation, civil disobedience and boycott
(d) boycott, civil disobedience and rebellion
(c) Non-cooperation, civil disobedience and boycott are three important forms of Satyagraha.
158. Which Article empowers the President to impose Financial Emergency?
(b) According the Article-360, the president can proclaim financial emergency if he is satisfied that the financial stability of credit of India or any part there of is threatened.
159. Which of the following subjects does not figure in the concurrent list of our Constitution?
(b) Trade unions
(c) Stock exchanges and futures markets
(d) Protection of wild animals and birds
(c) Union Parliament and Legislature of any state, have power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in concurrent list. Stock exchanges and futures markets are the subjects of Union list.
160. The President of India has the discretionary power to
(a) appoint the Chief Election Commissioner
(b) declare Financial Emergency
(c) impose President’s Rule in a state
(d) appoint the Prime Minister
(d) The President of India has the discretionary power to appoint the Prime Minister.
161. The script of the Indus Valley Civilization is
(d) The script of Indus valley civilization is undeciphered. This script is pictographic in nature fish symbol is most represented.
162. Which one of the following literary pieces was written by Krishna Devaraya?
(a) Anukta Malyada
(b) Katha Saristhaga
(c) Kaviraja Marga
(a) Krishnadeva Raya wrote ‘Amuktamalyada’ a book on polity in Telugu and also a Sanskrit drama Jambavati Kulyanam.
163. When the East India Company was formed, the Mughal emperor in India was
(b) When the East India Company was formed on AD December 31, 1600, the Mughal emperor in India was Akbar (AD 1556-1605
164. Which one of the following events did not take place during the Viceroyalty of Lord Curzon?
(a) Forpnation of Indian National Congress
(b) Partition of Bengal
(c) Establishment of the Department of Archaeology
(d) Second Delhi Durbar
(a) Indian National Congress was finally formed on December 28, 1985 during the viceroyalty of Lord Dufferin (1884-88).
165. Who among the following played a prominent role during the ‘Reign of Tenor’ in France?
(a) Maximiliers Robespiesre was a French Lawyer and politician and one of the best known and most influential figures of the French Revolution. He was the leader of Jacobin Club during the ‘Reign of Terror’.
166. The highest waterfall of India is in the state of
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Jog falls is the highest waterfall in India located near Sagara. Karnataka. It is created by the Sharavati river fallirig from a height of 260m.
167. Soil which is prone to intensive leaching due to rain is called ”
(b) Red soils formed by weathering of granite, guris and schist rocks. It is mixture of clay and sand. It is prone to intensive leaching due to rain is called.
168. The formation of ‘Mushroom rock’ in desert region is an example of
(b) A mushroom rock, also called rock pedestal is a naturally occuring rock whose shape, as its name implies strikingly resembles a mushroom. The rocks are deformed in a number of different ways: the processing of erosion and weathering.
169. The ‘Grand Canyon’ is on the river
(c) The ‘Grand Canyon’ and ‘Black Canyon’ waterfalls are situated on the river Colorado in USA.
170. Subtropical high pressure belts are otherwise called
(a) horse latitudes
(b) roaring forties
(c) furious fifties
(d) screeching sixties
(a) Horse latitudes are subtropical latitudes between 30 and 35 degrees both North and South hemisphere this region, under a ridge of high pressure called the subtropical high.
171. Self pollination will lead to
(d) rare breeding
(c) Self pollination can lead to inbreeding depression, or the reduced health of the species, due to the breeding of related specimens.
172. Hydroponics is a method of culture of plants without using
(b) Hydroponics is a subset of hydroculture and is a method of growing plants using mineral nutrient solutions in water without soil.
173. The non-green heterotrophic plants of plant kingdom are
(b) The non-green heterotrophic plants of plant kingdom are fungi. These plants cannot make their own food by the process of photosynthesis.
174.Which gland in the human body regulates the secretion of hormones from the pituitary gland?
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Hypothalamus gland
(c) Thymus gland
(d) Thyroid gland
(b) In the human body Hypothalamus gland regulates the secretion of hormones from the pituitary gland.
175.The old and worm-out red blood corpuscles are destroyed in
(a) bone marrow
(b) The old and worn-out red blood corpuscles are mostly destroyed in spleen.
176.Match List I with List II and choose the correct response
(a)Correct match is
177.Ohm’s law is valid in case of
(d) Ohm’s law states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the potential difference across the two points.
178.The Laser is a beam of radiations which are
(a) non-coherent and non- monochromatic
(b) coherent and non-monochromatic
(c) non-coherent and monochromatic
(d) coherent and monochromatic
(d) The laser is a beam of radiations which are coherent and monochromatic. Laser was invented by Theodore H. Maiman in 1960.
179.Centigrade and Fahrenheit temperatures are the same at
(b) Centigrade and Fahrenheit temperatures are the same at -40° .
180. The dimensional formula for universal gravitational constant is
(b) The dimensional formula for universal gravitational constant is M-1L3T-2.
181. In any spreadsheet, the address of the first cell is
(b) A spreadsheet is an interactive computer application programme for organization and analyzis of data in tabular form. In any spreadsheet the address of the first cell is A1.
182. Identify the DBMS among the following
(d) MS – Power Point
(a) A general purpose Database Management System (DBMS) is a software system designed to allow the definition, creation querying update and administration of databases. Wel-known DBMSs include my SQL, postgre SQL, SQLite, PL/SQL, oracle SAP, Foxpro and filemaker pro.
183. The database in which records are organized in a tree-like structure is
(a) relational database
(b) object-oriented database
(c) network database
(d) hierarchical database
(d) A Hierarchical database model is a data model in which the data is organized into a tree like structure. The structure allows representing information using parent/child relationships.
184. Natural rubber is a polymer of
(c) vinyl acetate
(a) Natural rubber consists of suitable polymers of the organic compound iso prene, with minor impurities of other organic compounds plus water.
185. The pH of lemon juice is expected to be
(a) less than 7
(b) more than 7
(c) equal to 7
(d) nothing can be predicted
(a) The approximate pH value of Lemon Juice is 2.2-2.4. It is acidic in nature.
186. An example of heterocyclic compound is
(d) A heterocyclic compounds is a cyclic compound that has atoms of atleast two different elements as members of its ring. The counterparts of heterocyclic compounds are homocyclic compound, the rings of which are made of a single element.
187. In electro-refining, the pure metal is deposited on
(a) In electro-refining the pure metal is deposited on cathode.
188. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Producer — Deer
(b) Primary consumer — Leopard
(c) Secondary consumer — Grass
(d) Decomposer — Bacteria
(d) All photosynthetic producers are called producers, deer is a primary consumer and leopard is a secondary consumer fungies and mostly bacterias are called decomposers.
189. The deciduous trees will
(a) synthesise their own food
(b) depend on others for their food
(c) shed their leaves every year
(d) not lose their leaves
(c) The deciduous trees will shed their leaves every year, forests where a majority of the trees lose their foliage at the end of the typical growing season are called decidnous forests.
190. The endangered species are listed in what colour data book?
(d) The endangered species are listed in Red Data Book.
191. Which country won the maximum number of medals in the Asian Athletic Championships held in Pune recently?
(d) Saudi Arabia
(b) The 201? Asian Athletics Championships (20th) was held at the chree Shiv Chhatrapati Sports complex in Balewadi, Pune between July 3-7. China easily took the top spot in the medal ranking with 16 gold medals and 2 7 medals in total.
192. Which country will host the next World Cup Football in 2014?
(a) Brazil will host the next world cup football in 2014.
193. Which one of the following ancient monuments in Delhi is not a World Heritage Monument?
(a) Humayun’s Tomb
(b) Qutub Minar
(c) Red Fort
(d) Jantar Mantar
(d) Jantar Mantar in Delhi is not a world Heritage monument.
194. Which one of the following organizations and its headquarters are wrongly matched?
(a) Food and Agriculture Organization — Rome
(b) International Civil Aviation Organization — London
(c) Interpol — Lyon
(d) Universal Postal Union — Berne
(b) The International civil Aviation organisation (ICAO) is a specialised agency of the United nations. Its head quarters are located in the quartier International of Montreal, Quebec, Canada
195. Which one of the following films was not directed by Satyajit Ray?
(a) Pather Panchali
(b) Salaam Bombay
(b) Salaam Bombay is a 1988 Hindi film directed by Mira Nair and screen written by her longtime creative Collaborator, Sooni Taraporevala.
196. Which one of the following days is not observed in the month of October?
(a) World Environment Day
(b) International Day of Non-violence
(c) Indian Air-force Day
(d) UN Day
(a) World Environment Day observed on June 5 every year.
197. Who is the author of the book “The State of the Nation”?
(a) Kuldip Nayar
(b) Fali S. Nariman
(c) Mark Tully
(d) Vinod Mehta
(b) The state of the nation by Fali S. Nariman is a meticulous and analytical account of the present scenario of the nation from a constitutional perspective.
198. Among the following Nobel laureates, who was not a recipient of the Nobel Prize for Peace?
(a) Linus C. Pauling
(b) Norman Ernest Borlaug
(c) Sir Winston Churchill
(d) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Sir Winston Churchill was not a recipients of the Nobel prize for peace. Linus C. pauling in 1962, Norman Ernest Borlaug in 1970 and woodrow wilson in 1919 won the nobel prize.
199. Which Union Territory in India has four districts but none of its districts has a common boundary with its other districts?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) The territory of Puducherry comprises of the former French establishment Puducherry, karaikal, Mahe and Yanam, which lie scattered in South India.
200. The Keibul Lamjao, the only floating National Park in the world is in
(c) The Keibul Lamjao National Park is in the Bishmupur district of the state of Manipur in India. It is 40 km2 in area, the only floating park in the world and an integral part of Loktak lake.