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Joining Letter Format Sample for Employee and Teacher job

January 31, 2020 by Veerendra Leave a Comment

Joining Letter Format In Word and Doc

Joining Letter: There are a number of important points to keep in mind while creating a formal letter because we often find difficulty in writing a good and beneficial letter. This occurs due to a lack of clarity and inefficiency. Skills to draft employment and business letters have come to be an absolute demand for creating our written communication more persuasive.

Joining Report Letter

Here are a few tips for effectively drafting a joining letter.

  • Ensure that your highlighted points are brief.
  • Keep it relevant and coherent.
  • Avoid the use of inappropriate language, jargon, and technical phrases.
  • Proofread for any grammatical and spelling errors.
  • Use the formal and communicative tone and language.
  • Presentation of the joining letter should be followed by subject matter, salutation, body, complementary closures or signatures, designation, and enclosures, if needed.

Below listed are important points that need to be clearly mentioned in the joining letter.

  1. Name of the receiver, designation and address.
  2. Subject and reference number, if your offer letter has the letter number.
  3. Attach the required documents and mention them in the enclosure column.
  4. Mention the documents that you may not be able to submit on an immediate basis.

How to Write a Joining Letter Format

The format of a joining letter is as follows:

Date/Place:

To

–Recipient’s Name–

(Designation, Address)

Subject – An Intimation for Joining on Duty

Dear/Respected –Salutation–

Ref.: Appointment Letter No. ________________ and date. ________________

–subject body– (para 1)

—

—

–(para 2)–

—

—

Yours faithfully/sincerely

–Your Name–

(Signature, Address)

Enclosures:

1) —

2) —

Joining Letter Sample

After receiving an appointment letter, we are sure you’d be searching for samples to understand the techniques of how to write a joining letter.

Letter for Joining as a Management Trainee Officer

To                                                                                                                      Date: 31/10/2019

General Manager

Human Resource Department

ABC Bank

30 Mehrauli, Badarpur Rd – 110030

Subject – Joining Report for the Post of Management Trainee Officer

Respected Sir

With reference to your appointment letter no. HO/HRD/PD/2019, dated October 29, 2019, I am pleased to inform you that I am willing to join as a Management Trainee Officer in your esteemed bank accepting the terms and conditions mentioned in the appointed letter issued your bank. I give the commitment that shall efficiently discharge my responsibilities and duties. I also assure you that I shall abide by all the rules and regulations of your organization.

I, therefore, hope that you would be kind enough to grant my joining letter.

Yours faithfully

XYZ

Signature

75 New Commercial Area

Udyog Vihar, Gurgaon – 122016

Enclosures:

1) —

2) —

Leave Letter

NIOS Registration 2019 | Application Form for Block 2 NIOS Exam

November 10, 2019 by Sastry Leave a Comment

NIOS Registration 2019 | Application Form for Block 2 NIOS Exam

NIOS Registration 2019: National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) has released the NIOS Online Admission Form for the academic year 2019-20. Candidates who were interested and willing to seek admission in class 10th and 12th can apply through online mode on or before the last date. Candidates seeking admission through Stream-1 in Block I and Block II can appear for Public Exam conducted by NIOS twice in a year i.e. April /May and October/November. Check the National Scholarship Portal here

This stream for online Admission is open for new Learners for April 2020 Examination (Last Dates for October 2020 is given below) as per the laid down eligibility criteria for Secondary & Sr. Secondary Levels. These Learners will now be eligible to appear in Public Examination first time in April 2020.

NIOS Registration 2019

NIOS provides the facility to the student to choose the language of their choice as a medium of instruction from the available choices. NIOS aims to reach the unreached. The learner should choose his/her subjects carefully keeping in view his/her plans for higher studies, specific jobs, and requirements of the concerned Board, etc.

Check the below table for important dates of examination with fees for Block 2 NIOS Admission

Dates of Online Admission Stream-1Fee
16 Sep 2019 to 31 Jan 2020Normal Fee
1 to 15 Feb 2020with late fee of Rs. 200/-
16 to 28 Feb 2020with late fee of Rs. 400/-
1 to 15 March 2020with late fee of Rs. 700/-

Application Form: Click Here to apply for NIOS 2019 Stream 1 Block 2.

How to Apply for NIOS 2019 Stream 1 Block 2

Application form for NIOS 2019 Stream 1 Block 2 is available online. The direct link to the application form is given below. Follow the given Steps to fill the application form:

  • Step – 1: Click on the link given below to open the Application form Page.
  • Step – 2: Read all the instructions carefully and then click on the “Register” button.
  • Step – 3: Select the State/UT to which the student belongs.
  • Step – 4: Select the Identity type through which the student intends to validate his/her identity.
  • Step – 5: Type the Identity Document Number. This number will be validated. The student will also need to upload the scanned color copy of the selected original Identity Document.
  • Step – 6: Select the Course (Secondary or Senior Secondary) for which the student intends to take admission.
  • Step – 7: The Aadhaar number provided by you along with Name and Gender will be validated from the Aadhaar Issuing Authority. If any information given in the Registration process does not match with Aadhaar Card then the Authentication Process will fail and the learner will not be allowed to continue to fill in the Admission Form.
  • Step – 8: After successful Authentication of the data, the learner will be redirected to the Admission Form starting with the Basic details.
  • Step – 9: Fill in the Name of the Applicant seeking NIOS admission, Father’s Name, and Mother’s Name, Date of Birth, Gender, Aadhaar Number or any valid govt. identity no., a valid Mobile Number, and a valid email address.
  • Step – 10: Click on the Generate OTP button to get One Time Password (OTP) on the Mobile Number and email address for authenticating both modes of communication.
  • Step – 11: In the next section, fill in the optional details like Family Income, Qualification of Father and Mother etc.
  • Step – 12: Select the subjects studied for the Board Examination. For every selected subject, specify the marks obtained in Theory and Practical exams.
  • Step – 13: In the next section, select the Study Centre. The student can select a maximum of 3 preferences.
  • Step – 14: Review the application and make the necessary modifications.
  • Step – 15: Make Payment.
  • Step – 16: Application Form Filling process is completed.

NCVT MIS

Photograph Specification

  • Recent Passport size color Photograph.
  • Signature of learner (preferably in Black Ink).

NIOS Registration – List of Documents Required to fill the Application Form

Given below is the list of documents required for filling the online application form of NIOS 2019 Stream 1 Block 2:

  • Valid identity proof (like Aadhaar Card or Passport or Ration card or etc.)
  • Valid proof of Date of Birth (like Aadhaar Card with the date of birth printed on it in the dd/mm/yyyy format, Birth Certificate, etc.)
  • A valid proof of Residence (like Aadhaar Card with complete address printed on it, valid Passport, etc.).
  • Address proof i.e. Aadhaar Card/Water Bill/Electricity Bill/Voter ID/Ration Card/Indian Passport/Statement of Operational Bank Account/Appointment Letter from the Employer on Printed Letter Head, if living in rented accommodation – a copy of any proof of permanent address along with present Rented Agreement
  • Class 8th marksheet (in case of secondary course) or class 10th marksheet (in case of senior secondary course)
  • Social category/Caste certificate (in case the learner belongs to SC/ST/OBC social category).o Ex-serviceman certificate (in case he/she is an Ex-serviceman)
  • Disability certificate (in case he/she is having any kind of disability)

NIOS Registration Eligibility Criteria

  • The minimum age to take admission in the Secondary Course is 14 years as on 31st January 2019 (born on or before 31/01/2005)
  • A learner who has passed class VIII and has a valid proof of attaining 14 years of age can apply for registration to the Secondary Course.
  • A learner giving a self-certificate “I have studied enough to be able to pursue secondary course” is also eligible for admission to the Secondary Course.
  • A learner who had studied at the secondary level can also seek admission in NIOS either to complete his course or to improve his performance.
  • The minimum age to take admission in the Senior Secondary Course is 15 years as on 31st January 2019 (born on or before 31/01/2004)
  • In order to take admission in the Senior Secondary course, the learner must have passed the Secondary course from a recognized Board.

About NIOS

National Institute of Open Schooling is a government initiative to provide education to students who can’t reach to school due to various reasons. NIOS provides study material in the form of written notes, audios and videos which make students erudition through self-study. NIOS provides the learner with the option to choose any subject combination from the list of subjects offered.

SSC CGL 2017 Official Notification PDF Download

October 8, 2018 by Veerendra Leave a Comment

SSC CGL 2017 Official Notification PDF Download

SSC CGL 2017 Official Notification PDF Download

SSC CGL 2017 Official Notification Out (ssc.nic.in)

SSC has published the much awaited notification of SSC CGL 2017 Examination. In this article we have summarized all the Important highlights of SSC CGL 2017 Notification. You may download it from the link provided below.

For more Sarkari Naukri notifications, please visit embibe.com/exams

SSC CGL 2017 Official Notification Download Link at the bottom of the article

Scholarship

Important Dates:

  • Start Date of Online Application: 16.05.2017
  • Closing Date:16.06.2017
  • Date of Computer Based Examination (Tier-I): 01.08.2017-20.08.2017
  • Date of Tier-II: 10.11.2017 & 11.11.2017
  • Date of Tier-III (Descriptive): 21.01.2018
  • Date of Tier-IV (Skill test)- Feb 2018

New Posts Introduced:

  • Assistant Accounts Officer (AAO)
  • Assistant in Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)
  • Assistant in other Ministries (GSI)

ssc-cgl-2017-official-notification-pdf-download

ssc-cgl-2017-official-notification-pdf-download 1

Download SSC CGL 2017 Official Notification PDF

Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment Selection Group X and Y

July 9, 2018 by Phani Leave a Comment

Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment Selection Group X and Y

Indian Air Force has released the notification for the Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment 2018.  Online applications are invited for unmarried male (Indian/ Nepalese) in group X trades (except education instructor trade) and group Y trades (except automobile technician, ground training instructor, Indian air force (police), Indian air force (security) and musician trades). All the interested candidates can apply online for Indian Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment. Also, Candidates will have to go through different selection processes like the online exam, Physical Fitness Test (PFT), and medical examination. Indian Air Force Airmen Merit List will be created according to the performance in all the stages. Candidates who are going to apply for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment must go through the following details provided below.

Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment Selection Group X and Y

Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment 2018 Group X & Y Notification

Interested candidates can fill their Application form for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment 2018 online at the official website. The application form must be filled & submitted before the last date of  Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment 2018. NMMS Scholarship is funded by Central Government.

Commencement of Online Registration03 Jul 2018
Last date for Registration24 Jul 2018
Admit cardAugust 2018
Selection test13 to 16 Sep 2018
The result of Selection testSeptember 2018
Declaration of PSL list30 April 2019
Enrolment List10 June 2019
 Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment official websitewww.airmenselection.cdac.in

Eligibility Criteria for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment 

Group X (Except for Education Instructor Trade).
  • Qualified Intermediate/10+2/ Equivalent examination with Mathematics, Physics, and English with a minimum aggregate of 50% and 50% marks in English.
  • Passed Three years Diploma Course in Engineering in any stream, as mentioned in the apply online section under candidate’s login on the CASB web portal www.airmenselection.cdac.in.
  • The candidate should have completed the course from a Government recognized Polytechnic institute with 50% marks in aggregate and 50 % marks in English in Diploma or in Intermediate/Matriculation if English is not subject in Diploma Course.
Group Y (Except Automobile Technician, GTI, IAF (P), IAF(S) and Musician) TradesPassed Intermediate / 10+2 / Equivalent Examination in any stream/subjects approved by Central / State Education Boards with minimum 50% marks in aggregate and 50% marks in English.
Group Y Medical Assistant Trade Only.Passed 10+2/Intermediate/ equivalent exam with Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and English with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate and 50% marks in English.
Mandatory Medical Standard for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment
  • Height: Mini 152.5 cms.
  • Chest: Minimum range of expansion: 5 cm.
  • Weight: Proportionate to height and age. However, the mini 55 Kg required for Operations Assistant (ATS) Trade only.
  • Corneal Surgery (PRK/LASIK) is not acceptable.
  • Hearing: Candidate should have normal hearing
  • Dental: Should have healthy gums, a minimum of 14 dental points
  • Health: Candidate should be of normal anatomy without loss of any appendages. The candidates shall be physically and mentally FIT to perform duty in any part of the world, in any climate and terrain.
Age requirement for Indian Air Force Airmen RecruitmentCandidate born between 14 July 1998 and 26 June 2002 (both days inclusive) are eligible to apply. In case, a candidate clears all the stages of the Selection Procedure, then the upper age limit as on date of enrolment is 21 years

MP Scholarship

Examination Pattern For Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment 2018

Phase – I: Online Test for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment

  • Group ‘X’ Trades: Candidates will get 60 minutes and questions will comprise of English, Physics, and Mathematics as per 10+2 CBSE syllabus.
  • Group ‘Y’ {Except Automobile Technician, GTI, IAF (P), IAF(S) and Musician} Trades: For the online test, candidates will be getting 45 minutes of duration and will comprise of English as per 10+2 CBSE syllabus and Reasoning & General Awareness (RAGA).
  • Both Group ‘X&Y’ Trades: Duration of the Online test will be 85 minutes and will comprise of English, Physics, and Mathematics as per 10+2 CBSE syllabus and Reasoning & General Awareness (RAGA).

Phase – II: Candidates have to report at the stipulated date and time for phase – II

  • Documents required for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment:
    • Colour print out of Admit Card
    • Colour Print out of duly filled application form.
    • Also, HB Pencil, Eraser, Sharpener, Glue stick, Stapler and Black/Blue Ball Point Pen for writing.
    • Ten copies of unattested recent passport size colour photograph.
    • Original and four self-attested photocopies of 10+2 Certificate
    • Likewise, Original and four self-attested photocopies of 10+2 Marks Sheet
    • Original and four self-attested photocopies of Intermediate/10+2/ Equivalent Examination Passing Certificate and Marks Sheet.
    • Original and four self-attested photocopies of Three years Diploma Course Passing Certificate and Marks Sheets of all semesters.
    • Certificate for SOAFP (Son of Air Force Personnel)
    • Original and four Self-attested photocopies of Discharge Certificate (Candidates discharged from Indian Army/Indian Navy/Any other Government Organisation).
    • NOC in original and 4 self-attested photocopies from the employer for candidates presently serving in any government organization (if applicable).
    • Original and four self-attested photocopies of NCC ‘A’, ‘B’ or ‘C’ certificate (if applicable)

Physical Fitness Test (PFT) For Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment

Candidates who pass Online Test for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment and are shortlisted as per merit will be called at designated Airmen Selection Centre for Physical Fitness Test (PFT). Therefore, This test for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment would consist of 1.6 Km run to be completed within 06 minutes and 30 seconds. Candidates will also have to complete 20 squats, 10 sit-ups, and 10 push-ups, within the given time to qualify in the Physical Fitness Test for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment. After this, all candidates will have to go through the adaptability test for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment for  Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment 2018

  • Adaptability Test-1 (For both Group ‘ X’ & Group ‘Y’ Trades): Candidates who have passed the Physical Fitness Test (PFT) will have to undertake Adaptability Test-1 (objective type/written test). Where candidates will be assessed for suitability for employment in the IAF which includes deployment in varied geographic terrain, weather and operational conditions
  • Adaptability Test-2 (For both Group ‘ X’ & Group ‘Y’ Trades): Candidates passing Adaptability Test -1 will have to undertake Adaptability Test-2 as per policy in vogue. Adaptability Test-2 is to select candidates who can adapt to the environment of Indian Air Force and are able to adjust to the military way of life.

Phase – III: Medical Examination for  Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment

Candidates who have qualified Adaptability Test-2 will be provided medical appointment letter at respective ASCs. Medical Examination will be conducted by Air Force Medical Team as per IAF medical standards and policy for  Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment.

The medical examination would also include Baseline Investigation of:-

  • Urine RE/ME
  • Blood Haemogram – Hb, TLC, DLC
  • Biochemistry
      • Blood Sugar Fasting & PP
      • Serum Cholesterol
      • Urea, Uric acid, Creatinine
      • LFT—Serum Bilirubin, SGOT, SGPT
      • X-Ray chest (PA view)
      • ECG (R)

<<Also, Get Sarkari Jobs Previous Papers Here>>

Model Questions For  Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment 2018

Model Question for Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment 2018 Group X and Y are given below. Hence, for the preparation of the exam, we have given Air Force Airmen Recruitment Model Questions and Syllabus. Also, Candidates can download the syllabus & model question paper of  Indian Air Force Airmen Recruitment 2018 through the direct link given below.

  • Syllabus for Group X 
  • Syllabus for Group Y 
  • Model Questions for Group X
  • Model Questions for Group Y

Provisional Select List (PSL) For Air Force Airmen Recruitment

Finally, The PSL will be prepared after the completion of selection test and the same will be displayed at all the airmen selection centres (ascs) and websites www.airmenselection.cdac.in. the inclusion of names of candidates in the PSL depends upon the performance of the candidates in the exam and also subject to medical fitness. Also, the inclusion of name in the provisional select list (PSL) does not guarantee automatic enrollment.

 

SSC CHSL Topic Wise Study Material – Practice Set 3

June 15, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

SSC CHSL Topic Wise Study Material – Practice Set 3

SSC CHSL Study MaterialSSC CHSL Previous PapersSSC CHSL Practice Workbook

Instructions
• In this question paper, there are 100 questions. Students are required to attempt all questions.
• Students will be awarded with 2 marks for each correct answer.
• There will be negative marking of 0.5 mark for each wrong answer.

Part I General Intelligence

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-3) Select the related words/ letters/numbers from the given alternatives.

1. JLNP : OMKI :: SUWY : ?
(a) FGHI
(b) MLKJ
(c) PLHD
(d) XVTR

2. 182 : ? :: 210 : 380
(a) 156
(b) 240
(c) 272
(d) 342

3. 42 : 56 :: 110 : ?
(a) 18
(b) 132
(c) 136
(d) 140

4. As Writer is related to Reader,similarly Producer is related to
(a) Seller
(b) Consumer
(c) Creator
(d) Contractor

Directions (Q.Nos. 5-8) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

5.
(a) Fish : Shoal
(b) Cow: Herd
(c) Sheep: Flock
(d) Man: Mob

6.
(a) 35
(b) 49
(c) 50
(d) 63

7.
(a) 15 : 63
(b) 22 : 91
(c) 23 :95
(d) 31 : 97

8.
(a) HGF
(b) XWV
(c) NML
(d) OPQ

9. In the following question, find out the number series in which number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is odd.
(a) BDHLR
(b) EIMQV
(c) FIMRX
(d) MPRUX

10. Which one of the following sets of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
y_x_ _zx_y_xy_zx
(a) zyyyzy
(b) xyzxyz
(c) zxyzyz
(d) zyyzyx

Directions (Q.Nos. 11-12) Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

11. 24, 60, 120, 210, ?
(a) 300
(b) 336
(c) 420
(d) 525

12. AZY, BYX, CXW, DWV, ?
(a) EVA
(b) EVU
(c) VEU
(d) VUE

13. Pointing to a lady a man says that she is the only daughter of my son’s maternal grandmother how is lady related to man?
(a) Brother
(b) Sister
(c) Wife
(d) Mother

14. A class of boys stands in a single line. One boy is 19th in order from both the ends. How many boys are there in the class?
(a) 27
(b) 37
(c) 38
(d) 39

15. Select the word which cannot be formed from AUTONOMOUS.
(a) AUNTS
(b) TOON
(c) MASON
(d) SAME

16. If in a certain language, TEACHER is written as LMKJNMP. How will HEART be written?
(a) NMAPL
(b) NMPKL
(c) NPKML
(d) NMKPL

17. If ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and FRANCE is written as 785291. How will GREECE be written?
(a) 381171
(b) 381191
(c) 832252
(d) 835545

18. Insert the correct mathematical signs in the following equation
13 3 2 1 = 15
(a) x ÷ +
(b) ÷ – x
(c) + – +
(d) ÷ x –

Aikyashree Scholarship

19. Select the missing number from the given responses.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 19
(a) 18
(b) 23
(c) 24
(d) 27

20. Kunal walks 10 km towards North. From there, he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?
(a) 5 km West
(b) 5 km North-East
(c) 7 km East
(d) 7 km West

Direction (Q.No. 21) Two statements are given followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements. Indicate your answer.

21. Statements All those political prisoners were released on bail who had gone to jail for reasons other than political dharnas. Bail was not granted to persons involved in murders.
Conclusions
I. No political prisoner had committed murder.
II. Some politicians were not arrested.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither I nor II follows

22. How many number of triangles in the following figure?
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 21
(a) 16
(b) 22
(c) 28
(d) 32

23. Select the answer figure in which question figure is hidden/embedded.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 23

24. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figure, indicate how it will appear when opened.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 24

25. Study the following matrix and then answer the question given below.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 25
What will be the code of ‘CUN’?
(a) 1, 7, 9
(b) 2, 3, 5
(c) 7, 3, 6
(d) 5, 3, 6

Part II General Awareness

26. Yen is the currency of
(a) Japan
(b) Taiwan
(c) North Korea
(d) South Korea

27. The Bank rate is the rate of interest at which the Reserve Bank of India provides loans to the
(a) scheduled commercial Banks
(b) public sector
(c) corporate sector
(d) foreign institutional investors

28. From which one of the following places, remains of wells have been found in houses belonging to the developed stage of the Indus valley civilization?
(a) Harappa
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Lothal
(d) Mohenjodaro

29. Which of the following is not one of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to freedom of thought and expression
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to equal pay for equal work for man as well as woman

30. Panchayati Raj System in India is laid down under
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Election Commission Act

31. The power of the President to issue ordinance is relic of
(a) Government of India Act of 1909
(b) Government of India Act of 1991
(c) Government of India Act of 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

32. In ancient India, the earliest capital of Magadha Kingdom was at
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Rajgir
(c) Vaishali
(d) Varansi

33 was one of the famous philosophers and scholars of the Pala period.
(a) Atish Dipankar
(b) Dibyok
(c) Ravikriti
(d) Aryabhatta

34. ‘Ramayan’ the Tamil version of the great epic Ramayana was made by
(a) Kamban
(b) Awaiyar
(c) Ilango adigal
(d) All of the above

35. Which of the following is true about sedimentary Rock?
(a) They are rocks whose structure is contingent on heat and pressure
(b) The rocks are Crystalline
(c) The rocks have been deposited in layers
(d) The rocks cannot be formed under water

36.Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(a) Himalayas —tertiary fold mountain
(b) Deccan Trap—volcanic cone eruption
(c) Western Ghat —Palaeozoic fold mountains
(d) Aravalli-pre-combrian rlict mountain

37. Water falls and rapids are commonly found in
(a) upper course of a river
(b) middle course of river
(c) lower course of a river
(d) area near the mouth of a river

38. It is possible to produce seedless tomato fruits by
(a) applying trace elements in tomato fruits
(b) spraying mineral solution on plants
(c) spraying harmones on flowers
(d) Applying fertilizers containing

39. Which one of the following is a fungus?
(a) Agaricus
(b) Funaria
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Spirogyra

40. The temperature of a Gas is measured with a
(a) platinum resistance thermometer
(b) pyrometer
(c) gas thermometer
(d) vapour pressure thermometer

41. The wavelength of visible light are between
(a) 3000 pm to 0.4 pm
(b) 0.4 pm to 0.7 pm
(c) 0.7 pm to 1000 pm
(d) 0.1 cm to 30 cm

42. Output deyices make it possible to
(a) view and print a data
(b) scan a data
(c) input a data
(d) sending a data

43. Non-ideal gases approach ideal behaviour
(a) high temperature and high pressure
(b) high temperature and low pressure
(c) low temperature and high pressure
(d) low temperature and low pressure

44. The sequence of energy flow through a food chain is
(a) primary consumers— producers—higher order consumers
(b) producers —higher order consumers—primary consumers
(c) higher order consumers— primary consumers—producers
(d) producers—primary : consumers—higher order consumers

45. In the past decade, which of the following has not been a major cause of the increase in the world’s population?
(a) Longer life span
(b) Lower infant mortality
(c) Increase in birth rate
(d) Improved sanitation

46. Rangaswami cup is associated with
(a) wrestling
(b) football
(c) hockey
(d) golf

47. When is World Teacher Day observed?
(a) October 5
(b) December 30
(c) October 27
(d) October 10

48. Which of the following forms the largest delta?
(a) Ganga
(b) Godavari
(c) Cauvery
(d) Krishna

49. The author of the book ‘India wins freedom’ is
(a) Kuldeep Nawar
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azacf
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(d) Indira Gandhi

50. The latest addition to the list of UNESCO’S world heritage sites in India is
(a) Qutab Minar
(b) HumayunTomb
(c) Khujuraho Temple
(d) Red Fort

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

51. Find the largest common divisor of 102 and 1170.
(a) 10
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d)8

52. The ratio of the radius and height of a cone is 5 : 12. Its volume is 314 2/7 cm. Its slant height is
(a) 13 cm
(b)14cm
(c) 17 cm
(d) 26 cm

53. The length of canvas 12 m wide required to builed a conical tent of height 14 m and the floor area 346.5 m2, is
(a) 665 m
(b) 770 m
(c) 490 m
(d) 860 m

54. The sum of the radius of base and the height of a cylinder is 37 m. If the total surface Area of the cylinder is 1628 m2, then its volume is
(a) 5240 m3
(b) 4620 m3
(c) 3180 m3
(d) None of these

55. A pipe of 2 inch diameter fills the water tank in 1 h. If the diameter of the pipe is 4 inch, in what time will the pipe fill the same tank?
(a) 30 min
(b) 45 min
(c) 15 min
(d) 10 min

56. 0.88 cm3 of iron is melted and moulded in the form of iron rods, each of diameter 2 cm and length 7 m. How many rods are formed?
(a) 400
(b) 392
(c) 616
(d) 2000

57.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 57
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3

58. The discount series 10%, 20%, 40% is equivalent to a single discount of
(a) 50%
(b) 56.8%
(c) 60%
(d) 62.28%

59. On selling an article at Rs 1060, the gain is 20% more than the loss incurred on selling it at Rs 950.In order to gain 20%, the selling price will be
(a) Rs 980
(b) Rs 1080
(c) Rs 1800
(d) None of these

60. If a : (b + c) = 1:3 and c : (a+ b) = 5:7, then b:(a + c) is equal to
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:3
(c) 1:3
(d) 2 : 1

61. Average age of A, B and C is 36 yr. If average age of B and C is 30 yr and age of B is 22 yr, then what is the sum of the ages of A and C?
(a) 68 yr
(b) 86 yr
(c) 58 yr
(d) 61 yr

62. The price of an article has been reduced by 25%. In order to restore it to the original price, the new price must be increased by
(a) 33 1/3%
(b) 11 1/9%
(c) 9 1/11%
(d) 66 2/3%

63.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 63
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 8.2

64. The speed of a motor boat is that of the current of water as 36 : 5. The boat goes along with the current in 5 h 10 min. It will come back in
(a) 5 h 50 min
(b) 6 h
(c) 6 h 50 min
(d) 12 h 10 min

65. The difference between compound interest and simple interest at the same rate on Rs 5000 for 2 yr is Rs 72. The rate of interest per annum is
(a) 6%
(b) 8%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%

66. If a + b + c -11 and ab +bc + cd = 20, then (a3 + b3 + c3 -3abc) is equal to
(a) 121
(b) 341
(c) 671
(d) 781

67.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 67
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8

68.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 68
(a)1/5
(b)1/10
(c)1/14
(d)1/28

69.If ax=by=cz and b2=ac then y is equal to
(a)xz/x+z
(b)xz/2(x-z)
(c)xz/2(z-x)
(d)2xz/(x+z)

70. In an equilateral ΔABC of side 10 cm, the side BC is trisected at D. Then, the length (in cm) of AD is
(a) 3√7
(b) 7√3
(c) 10√7/3
(d) 7√10/3

71. If O is the centre of the circle, then x is
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 71
(a)72°
(b)62°
(c)82°
(d)52°

Directions (Q.Nos. 72-73) Observe the pie chart and answer the question based on this graph.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 72

72. The angle for the sector on paper cost is
(a) 22 1/2°
(b) 16°
(c) 54.8°
(d) 36°

73. If the printing cost is Rs 17500, the royalty cost is
(a) Rs 8750
(b) Rs 7500
(c) Rs 3150
(d) Rs 6300

74.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 74
(a) cos A-tan A
(b) cos A-cot A
(c) sec A – cot A
(d) sec A – tan A

75.
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 75
(a)2
(b)2/sinθ
(c)4/sinθ.cosθ
(d)none of these

Part IV English Language

Directions (Q.Nos. 76-78) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (d) i.e., ‘No error’ (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

76. Handsome is usually used (a)/ of men but beautiful is not (b)/ usually used to talk about’ man’s appearance, (c)/ No error (d)

77. Payal kept her drum (a)/ besides her (b)/ always and she played wisely, (c)/ No error (d)

78. Either you (a)/ or your friend (b) / has stolen my wrist watch, (c)/ No error (d)

Directions (Q.Nos. 79-80) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

79. Being himself a lawyer by___and jurist by temperament Ambedkar emphasized the role of law in society.
(a) profession
(b) birth
(c) education
(d) companionship

80. We have to plant more trees___we can save our environment from the evils of pollution. .
(a) so as
(b) since as
(c) such that
(d) so that

Directions (Q.No. 81) In each question below, four words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given. Find out the word, the spelling of which is wrong. The number of that word is the answer.

81.
(a) Launch
(b) Kitchen
(c) Remember
(d) Agressive

Directions (Q. Nos. 82-83) In these questions, choose the word similar in meaning to the given word.

82. Imaginary
(a) Fabulous
(b) Fictitious
(c) Factitious
(d) Fallacious

83. Tranquil
(a) Tremendous
(b) Dynamic
(c) Treacherous
(d) Peaceful

Directions (Q. Nos. 84-86) In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the paragraph are numbered as S1 and S6. The rest of the paragraph is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out, which of the four combinations is correct.

84.S1 Martha taught English Literature.
P. She would involve them in roleplays.
Q. Her students were young learners.
R. This way the students found it easier to identify with the characters.
S. They fell into the age group of 14-16 years.
S6. They looked forward to attending her classes.
The proper sequence should be
(a)QSPR
(b)QPSR
(c)RSPQ
(d)SQRP

85.S1 Mary and Jo were amateur
P. He called them for auditions the following week.
Q. So they approached a leading music company.
R. They wanted to try their luck at playback singing.
S.But the manager said that they would have to qualify an audition test.
S6. Fortunately they qualified the test.
The proper sequence should be
(a) RSPQ
(b) QPRS
(c) PRSQ
(d) RQSP

86. S1. Rubik’s Cube was most popular puzzle in 1980s.
P. His name was Emo Rubik.
Q. In 1977 he produced the plastic version.
R. It was invented by an architect.
S. The first cube was made of wood.
S6. It won a prize at the Budapest International Fair.
The proper sequence should be
(a)QRPS
(b)RSPQ
(c) RPSQ
(d) PRSQ

Directions (Q. Nos. 87-88) in these questions, four alternatives are suggested for the idiom/phrase given in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

87. He died in harness.
(a) ceased to live
(b) died of a disease
(c) died for his country
(d) died while working

88. All his schemes ended in smoke.
(a) came to nothing
(b) got on fire
(c) burnt up
(d) attracted everybody

Directions (Q.Nos. 89-93) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then, fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

Passage
The solar system has been a complicated wonder for the astronomers. This is a (89) to which we may never have the exact answer. Man has wondered (90) the age of the Earth since ancient times. There were all kinds of (91) that seemed to have the answer But man could not begin to think about the question scientifically until about 400 years (92) When it was proved that the Earth revolved round the Sun and the Earth was a (93) of our Solar System, then scientists knew where to begin.

89.
(a) problem
(b) question
(c) matter
(d) query

90.
(a) around
(b) out
(c) about
(d) on

91.
(a) ideas
(b) opinions
(c) stories
(d) matter

92.
(a) now
(b) time
(c) then
(d) ago

93.
(a) part
(b) division
(c) opening
(d) centre

Directions (Q. Nos. 94-98) Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Passage
The common people have a way of laughing at their own misfortunes. They can also laugh at their oppressors. Satire became a habit with them while they groaned under the oppression of kings, priests and plutocrats.In contemporary India, the politician and the bureaucrat are the ones they take their revenge upon. There is much humour in Indian proverbs. Even the Gods. are not spared. There is a special form of worship called minda stuti, praise by dispraise. Real humour in India, as elsewhere, is contained within the different languages and it is difficult for Indians of one region to understand the humour of another. India is also by tradition a class-ridden and hierarchical society. Excessive reverence is shown to elders and to those in authority/though this may be changing. Sons and daughters don’t usually joke with their p^pents and vice versa; a boss can’t afford to be seen in a mood of levity with his employees; the landlord wouldn’t dream of sharing a joke with his peasant labourers. The path to wit and humour is strewn with pitfalls. With Indian intellectuals, solemnity is a motto. Many of them wouldn’t be seen dead with a joke. And the higher they go in the cerebral scale, the drier they become.

94. Who becomes drier in the matter of wit?
(a) The greater intellectual
(b) The lesser intellectual
(c) The commoner
(d) An employee

95. Who laughs at their own misfortunes?
(a) Intellectuals
(b) Commoners
(c) Politicians
(d) Kings

96. ‘Cerebral scale’ means
(a) a device to measure height
(b) a device to measure intelligence
(c) intellectual ability
(d) head massager

97. Whom do the commoners laugh at?
(a) Misfortunes
(b) Oppressors
(c) Intellectuals
(d) Writers

98. Who does not oppress the commoner?
(a) Authors
(b)Plutocrats
(c) Bureaucrats
(d) Politicians

Directions (Q.Nos. 99 and 100) Choose the correct option to improve the bold part.

99. The workers looked run down.
(a) happy
(b) relaxed
(c) exhausted
(d) No improvement

100. The relatives comforted the old man whose wife had died.
(a) sympathised with
(b) pitied
(c) consoled
(d) No improvement

Answers

ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 ans

Hints & Solutions

ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 9
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 15
ssc-chsl-topic-wise-study-material-practice-set-3 20

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