SSC CHSL LDC/ DEO/ PSA Previous Year Solved Papers – 21 October, 2012 (2nd Shift)
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SSC CHSL Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level LDC & Data Entry Operator, Exam Solved Paper 21 October, 2012 (2nd Shift)
Part I General Intelligence
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6) In the questions given below, select the related letters / words / numbers from the given alternatives.
1. Sapling : Tree :: Girl: ?
(a) Woman
(b) Wife
(c) Man
(d) Child
Answer:
(a) As, ‘Sapling’ is related to ‘Tree’. Similarly, ’Girl’ is related to ‘Woman’.
2. Doctor : Hospital:: Chef : ?
(a) Cook
(b) Knife
(c) Kitchen
(d) Food
Answer:
(c) As, ‘Doctor’ treatments patient in ‘Hospital’. Similarly, ‘Chef cooks food in ‘Kitchen’.
3. CHAIR : RIAHC :: TABLE : ?
(a) SJBID
(b) UBCMF
(c) ELTAB
(d) ELBAT
Answer:
4. Food : Hunger :: Sleep : ?
(a) Dream
(b) Weariness
(c) Night
(d) Health
Answer:
(b) After taking ‘Food’ ends ‘Hunger’. Similarly, after taking ‘Sleep’ ends ‘Weariness’.
5.XXIV : 48 :: XIV : ?
(a) 30
(b) 28
(c) 24
(d) 14
Answer:
6. 6, 20, 8, 14, 10, 8, 12, ?
(a) 14
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 10
Answer:
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-10) In the questions given below, select the one which is different from the other three responses.
7.
(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Except ‘Root’, all others are upper part of tree. While ‘Root’ is underground part of tree.
8.
(a) Student
(b) Ward
(c) Mentor
(d) Pupil
Answer:
(c)Except ‘Mentor’, all others have same characteristics.
9. 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21
(a) 21
(b) 17
(c) 14
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) Except ’14’, all others are odd numbers.
10.
(a) 53, 69
(b) 65, 80
(c) 62, 78
(d) 50, 66
Answer:
(b) Except ’65, 80′, in all others difference between both numbers is 16.
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-13) In the questions given below, which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
11. 1. Study 2. Employment 3. Pass 4. Admission 5. Examination
(a) 4, 5, 3, 1,2
(b) 4, 1,5, 3, 2
(c) 1,3,4, 5, 2
(d) 4,1,2,5, 3
Answer:
12. 1. Sowing 2. Manuring 3. Ploughing 4. Harvesting 5. Watering
(a) 1,5,2, 4, 3
(b) 3,1,5, 2, 4
(c) 1,3, 2, 4, 5
(d) 1,2, 4, 3, 5
Answer:
13. 1. Leaf 2. Fruit 3. Stem 4. Roots 5. Flower
(a) 3, 4, 5,1,2
(b) 4, 3,1,5,2
(c) 4,1,3, 5, 2
(d) 4, 3,1,2,5
Answer:
14. Which will appear fourth in the dictionary?
(a) Miracle
(b) Minority
(c) Mistake
(d) Mission
Answer:
(c) Words dictionary order are as follows Minority, Miracle, Mission, Mistake Hence, Mistake word will appear fourth in the dictionary.
15. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
g_ _ g_ _ gh_ gi
(a) h i h i i h
(b) h h i i h h
(c) j k l j k l
(d) h i j k l i
Answer:
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-18) In the questions given below, a series is given, with one number/ letter missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
16. CAGEKIOM_ _
(a) S Q
(b) U S
(c) Q S
(d) O Q
Answer:
17. 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ?
(a) 20
(b)22
(c)23
(d)26
Answer:
18. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?, 49
(a) 27
(b) 36
(c) 64
(d) 81
Answer:
19. There are twelve dozen of apples in a basket. Two dozen are added later. Ten apples got spoilt and are removed. The remaining are transferred equally into two baskets. How many are there in each?
(a) 89
(b) 168
(c) 158
(d) 79
Answer:
20. Shyama says that father of Rajiv’s father is my father. How Shyama is related to Rajiv?
(a) Sister
(b) Mother
(c) Father’s sister (aunt)
(d) Niece
Answer:
21.The average age of husband, wife and their child 3 yr ago was 27 yr and that of wife and the child 5 yr ago was 20 yr. The present age of husband is
(a) 35 yr
(b) 40 yr
(c) 50 yr
(d) 45 yr
Answer:
Directions (Q. Nos. 22 and 23) In the following questions from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
22.‘GRASSHOPPER’
(a) HOPE
(b) SHOP
(c) GRAM
(d) ROSE
Answer:
(c) Due to absence of letter ‘M’ the word ‘GRAM’ cannot be formed.
23. ‘THUNDERBOLT’
(a) BEND
(b) HUNTER
(c) BOTHER
(d) BOWLED
Answer:
(d) Due to absence of letter ‘W the word ‘BOWLED’ cannot be formed.
24. If ‘LAME’ is written as ‘ODPH’, how can ‘MALE’ be written in that code?
(a) PDOH
(b) HOPD
(c) DOPH
(d) OPDH
Answer:
25. If ‘Madagascar’ can be written as 4727879670, then ‘Madras’ can be written as
(a) 472490
(b) 424290
(c) 427409
(d) 472079
Answer:
26. If 35674 is written as 57896, how will 4213 be written as?
(a) 5376
(b) 6435
(c) 5397
(d) 5389
Answer:
27. If 5 = 5, 6 = 12, 7 = 21, 8 = 32, then 9 is equal to
(a)9
(b) 27
(c)26
(d)45
Answer:
28. Which among the following is a leap year?
(a) 1600
(b) 1900
(c) 1800
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All the given years are divided by 4. Hence, all the years are leap years.
Directions (Q. Nos. 29 and 30) In the questions given below, select the missing number from the given responses.
29.
(a)6
(b)5
(c)4
(d)3
Answer:
30.
(a)9
(b)70
(c)60
(d)5
Answer:
31. If “+’ means ‘x’ ‘-’ means ‘÷’ , ‘x’ means ‘+’ and ‘÷’ means’-‘ then 25 x 5 – 3 ÷ 2 + 5 = ?
(a) 40
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 30
Answer:
32. If 20 + 3 = 15 and 15 + 4 = 30, then 12 + 6 =?
(a)36
(b)27
(c) 60
(d) 9
Answer:
33. A man walks 4 km to the East, turns left walks 4 km and turns left and walks 4 km. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Answer:
34. In a double track rail route, two trains start simultaneously from the opposite stations 200 km apart. The train A runs Westwards at a speed of 50 km/h and the opposite train B runs Eastwards at 40 km/h. After 3h, what will be the distance between these two trains?
(a) 70 km
(b) 30 km
(c) 50 km
(d) 80 km
Answer:
Directions (Q. Nos. 35-37) In the questions given below, two I three statements are given followed by two I four Conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow the given statements.
35. Statements
All teachers are experienced.
Some teachers are spinsters.
Conclusions
I. Some experienced are spinsters.
II. Some spinsters are experienced.
(a) Only Conclusion I follows
(b) Only Conclusion II follows
(c) Either Conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both Conclusions I and II follow
Answer:
36. Statements
In a consignment, all the boxes contain books.
Some of these boxes have also note books.
Some other boxes have also scribbling pads.
Conclusions In this consignment,
I. Some boxes contain only scribbling pads.
II. All boxes contain note books.
III. Some boxes contain note books and books.
IV. Some boxes contain note books, scribbling pads and books.
(a) Only Conclusion IV follows
(b) Only Conclusion III follows
(c) Only Conclusion II follows
(d) Only Conclusion I follows
Answer:
(a) According to the statements only Conclusion TV follows it means ‘some boxes contain note books, scribbling pads and books’.
37. Statements
All benghes are tables.
No table is chair. Conclusions
I. All benches are chairs.
II. All tables are benches.
III. No tables are benches.
IV. No benches are chairs.
(a) Only Conclusion I follows
(b) Only Conclusion II follows
(c) Only Conclusion III follows
(d) Only Conclusion IV follows
Answer:
38. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer words is the right image of the given word?
Answer:
39. How many circles are there in this figure?
(a) 21
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 17
Answer:
(a) Number of circles in the given figure is 21.
40. How many rural people are educated?
(a)44
(b)28
(c)56
(d)16
Answer:
(b) Number of rural people are educated = 22 + 6 = 28
41. How many teachers are neither players nor singers?
(a)5
(b)10
(c)4
(d)9
Answer:
(b) Number of teachers are neither players nor singers are represented by only triangle and outside of both circle and rectangle.Hence, number of such teachers = 10
42. How many players are neither teachers nor singers?
(a)5
(b)17
(c)12
(d)4
Answer:
(c) Number of players are neither teachers nor singers are represented by only circle and outside of both triangle and rectangle.Hence, number of such players =12
Directions (Q. Nos. 43 and 44) In the questions given below, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?
43.
Answer:
(a) Answer figure (a) will complete the pattern of the question figure.
44.
Answer:
(a) Answer figure (a) will complete the pattern of the question figure.
45. Which answer figure is the part of the following complete form of question figure?
Answer:
Directions (Q. Nos. 46 and 47) In the questions given below select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden / embedded.
46.
Answer:
47.
Answer:
Directions (Q. Nos. 48 and 49) In the questions given below, a piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
48.
Answer:
(c) Answer figure (c) will appear when a piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the question
49.
Answer:
(c) Answer figure (c) will appear when a piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the question figure.
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column e.g., ‘A! can be represented by 55, 67 etc. and ‘R’ can be represented by 23, 30, etc. Similarly, identify the set for the word DART.
(a) 69, 67,11,86
(b) 76, 86, 03, 87
(c) 57, 55, 04, 56
(d) 95, 98, 42, 65
Answer:
Part II English Language
Directions (Q.Nos. 51-56) In the questions given below, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (d).
51. Being very dark (a)/ the visitors found it difficult (b)/to locate the switch, (c)/ No error (d)
Answer:
(a) Add ‘It’ before ‘being’.
52. Nalini says (a)/ she is living in Chennai (b)/ since 1991. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer:
(b) It should be ‘that she has been living in Chennai’.
53. We get (a)/ excellent furnitures (b)/ in this shop, (c)/ No error (d)
Answer:
(b) Use ‘furniture’ in place of ‘furnitures.’ Furniture is an uncountable noun.
54. We should arrange (a)/ for a porter as (b)/ the luggages are heavy, (c)/ No error (d)
Answer:
(c) It should be ‘the luggage is heavy’. Luggage is an uncountable noun and is used as singular.
55. My father (a)/ has returned back (b)/ to Chennai yesterday, (c)/ No error (d)
Answer:
(b) Use ‘returned’ in place of ‘has returned back’.
56. Everyone are expected (a)/ to come (b) / to school tomorrow, (c)/ No error (d)
Answer:
(a) Use ‘is’ in place of ‘are’. Singular verb is required here.
Directions (Q. Nos. 57-61) In the questions given below, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
57. I visit Shimla frequently; however, I have never___Kufri.
(a) visited to
(b) been too
(c) been to
(d) went to
Answer:
(c)
58. He was junior___me in college and we have been friends since then.
(a) than
(b)from
(c)to
(d)with
Answer:
(c)
59. The____in the region has been pleasant recently.
(a) weather
(b) whether
(c) season
(d) climate
Answer:
(a)
60. While he was working at the construction site, the block of wood suddenly ____his right shoulder.
(a) was hit
(b) had hitted
(c) hit
(d) was hitted
Answer:
(c)
61.___following all the constructions closely, he missed out an important guideline.
(a) Although
(b) Inspite of
(c) Otherwise
(d) Instead of
Answer:
(a)
Directions (Q.Nos. 62-64) In the questions given below, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
62. Thrive
(a) Flourish
(b) Raise
(c) Create
(d) Destroy
Answer:
(a) Thrive means to ‘become and continue to be successful, strong, healthy etc.’
63. Dissuade
(a) Worry
(b) Disturb
(c) Discourage
(d) Encourage
Answer:
(C) Dissuade means ‘to persuade somebody not to do something.’
64. Anguish
(a) Conflict
(b) Anger
(c) Agony
(d) Trouble
Answer:
(c) Anguish means ‘severe pain or mental suffering’.
Directions (Q.Nos. 65-67) In the questions given below, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
65. Permit
(a) Approve
(b) Certify
(c) Forbid
(d) Endorse
Answer:
(c) ‘ Permit means %to allow somebody to do something’. Forbid means ‘to order somebody not to do something’.
66. Lead
(a). Guide
(b) Follow
(c) Direct
(d) Conduct
Answer:
(b) Lead means ‘to go with or in front of somebody to show the way’. Follow means “to go behind the somebody”
67. Insolent
(a) Arrogant
(b) Overbearing
(c) Disdainful
(d) Submissive
Answer:
(d) Insolent means ‘rude and showing lack of respect’. Submissive means ‘willing to obey somebody whatever they want you to do’.
Directions (Q.Nos. 68-72) In the questions given below, four alternatives are given for the Idiom I Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given Idiom I Phrase.
68. In black and white
(a) In writing
(b)In short .
(c) In full swing
(d) Useless
Answer:
(a) In black and white means ‘in writing or printing’.
69. Hand and glove
(a) Open enemy
(b) Very intimate
(c) Very rude
(d) Very difficult
Answer:
(b) Hand and glove means ‘very close or intimate’.
70. A hard nut to crack
(a) A difficult problem
(b) An easy question
(c) Expensive thing
(d) A foolish search
Answer:
(a) A hard nut to crack means ‘a difficult problem or situation to deal with’.
71. At a loss
(a) Unable
(b) Able
(c) Defeat
(d) Expert
Answer:
(a) At a loss means ‘not knowing what to say or do’.
72. A lame excuse
(a) Good explanation
(b) Useless talk
(c) III feelings
(d) Unsatisfactory explanation
Answer:
(d) A lame excuse means ‘an excuse or explanation which is weak and difficult to believe’.
Directions (Q.Nos. 73-79) In the questions given below, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (a), (b),(c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
73. The offer is very good so it just can’t be true.
(a) so good to
(b) rather good to
(c) too good to
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(c) It should be ‘too good to’ or ‘so good that it can’t’.
74. The bell was ringing and ringing but no one picked up the phone.
(a) rang and rang
(b) rang repeatedly
(c) was ringing repeatedly
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(b) It should be ‘rang repeatedly.
75. Sujata was junior to me in college.
(a) junior than
(b) junior most to
(c) junior of
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(d) The sentence is correct.
76. One of any teacher has received the Sahitya Akademi Award.
(a) the teacher
(b) my teachers
(c) teacher
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(b) After one of, each of, none of plural noun/pronoun is used.
77. If I had gone to Mumbai, I would surely bring your books.
(a) would have surely brought
(b) could have surely brought
(c) might have brought
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(a)’ Would have surely brought’ is the appropriate phrase.
78. Sachin Tendulkar has completed hundred centuries, hasn’t he?
(a) has he?
(b) isn’t it?
(c) didn’t he?
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(d) The sentence is correct.
79. My friend went abroad last week.
(a) has gone
(b) went to
(c) had gone
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(d) The sentence is correct.
Directions (Q.Nos. 80-83) In the questions given below, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words / sentence.
80. Fit to be eaten
(a) Credible
(b) Audible
(c) Edible
(d) Legible
Answer:
(c) Edible means ‘fit or suitable to be eaten’.
81. Unfair advantages for members of one’s own family
(a) Plagiarism
(b) Nepotism
(c) Regionalism
(d) Optimism
Answer:
(a) Nepotism means ‘giving unfair advantages to your own family if you are in a position of power’.
82. A proficient public speaker
(a) Orator
(b) flarrator
(c) Arbitrator
(d) Curator
Answer:
(a) Orator means ‘a proficient public speaker’.
83. Always ready to attack or quarrel
(a) Impatient
(b) Aggressive
(b) Malicious
(d) Creative
Answer:
(b) Aggressive means ‘angry and ready to attack’.
Directions (Q.Nos. 84 and 85) In the questions given below, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
84.
(a) Diesel
(b) Dezel
(c) Desal
(d) Deesal
Answer:
(a) The correctly spelt word is ‘diesel’.
Directions (Q. Nos. 86-100) In the questions given below, you have following two brief passages with 10 questions in Passage I and 5 questions in Passage II read the passage carefully and fill in the blanks with suitable words out of the four alternatives given.
Passage I
In Buddha’s days rough rectangular coins (86) issued by various economic and political authorities (87) it was not Until the fourth century before Christ that India arrived at a coinage guaranteed by the state. Sher Shah (88) well designed pieces of copper, silver and gold. In medieval India the growth of industry and commerce was (89) a religious anti-pathy to the taking of interest. The Indians (90) put out money at usury nor knew how to borrow. When the Hindu (91) not invest his savings in his own economic enterprises he (92) to hoard them or to buy jewellery as conveniently (93) wealth. Perhaps this failure to develop a facile credit system (94) the industrial revolution to establish the European domination of Asia. Slowly, however despite the (95) of the Brahmans, money-lending grew.
86.
(a) was
(b) had
(c) were
(d) have
Answer:
(c)
87.
(a) and
(b) or
(c) since
(d) but
Answer:
(a)
88.
(a) issued
(b) started
(c) made
(d) put forth
Answer:
(b)
89.
(a) on
(b) in
(c) by
(d) as
Answer:
(c)
90.
(a) either
(b) whether
(c) therefore
(d) neither
Answer:
(d)
91.
(a) should
(b) must
(c) could
(d)would
Answer:
(c)
92.
(a) decided
(b) declared
(c) asked
(d) preferred
Answer:
(a)
93.
(a) precious
(b) hoardable
(c) respectable
(d) usable
Answer:
(d)
94.
(a) aided
(b) insisted
(c) confirmed
(d) summoned
Answer:
(b)
95.
(a) oppression
(b) hostility
(c) compassion
(d) affability
Answer:
(b)
Passage II
One rainy day I watched a neighbour (96) to push her toddler in a pram with one hand and control her Doberman with the other. The dog didn’t want to get its feet wet and was refusing to walk. I was about to put on my jacket and offer (97) help when the trio disappeared (98) some hedges. When they reappeared, she (99) to have sorted out her problem: the toddler, attached to the dog’s leash, was (100) running through mud puddles and the dog was in the pram.
96.
(a) struggling
(b) to struggle
(c) being struggle
(d) was struggling
Answer:
(a)
97.
(a) lot
(b) the
(c) some
(d) few
Answer:
(c)
98.
(a) on
(b) above
(c) to
(d) behind
Answer:
(d)
99.
(a) was
(b) seemed
(c) looked
(d) seem
Answer:
(b)
100.
(a) generally
(b) hardly
(c) fiercely
(d) joyously
Answer:
(d)
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
101.If p and q are two relatively prime positive integers such that p+q = 10,p < q, then the number of possible values of p is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
102. The greatest number of four digits which when divided by 3, 5, 7, 9 leaves remainders 1, 3, 5, 7 respectively is
(a) 9765
(b) 9763
(c) 9764
(d) 9766
Answer:
103.
Answer:
104.A alone can do a piece of work in 20 days and B alone in 30 days. They begin to work together. They will finish half of the work in
(a) 6 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 12 days
Answer:
105. P is thrice as good a workman as Q and therefore became able to finish a job in 48 days less than Q. Working together, they can do it in
(a) 12 days
(b) 18 days
(c) 24 days
(d) 30 days
Answer:
106. A trader marks his goods 25% above his cost price but allows his customers a discount of 10% on the marked price at the time of selling. By this, the trader gains
(a) 15%
(b) 13.5%
(c) 12.5%
(d) 12%
Answer:
107. A trader allows two successive discount of 30% and 15% on selling an article. If he gets Rs 476 for that article, find its marked price.
(a)Rs 800
(b)Rs 700
(c)Rs 400
(d)Rs 900
Answer:
108. Mr A bought a refrigerator with 16 2/3% discount on the labelled price. Had he bought it with 25% discount, he would have saved Rs 600. At what price did he buy the refrigerator?
(a)Rs 5000
(b)Rs 6000
(c)Rs 7200
(d)Rs 7500
Answer:
109. The total number of students of a school was 660. The ratio between boys and girls was 13 : 9. After some days, 30 girls joined the school and some boys left the school and new ratio between boys and girls became 6:5. The number of boys who left the school is
(a) 60
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 30
Answer:
110.94 is divided into two parts in such a way that the fifth part of the first and the eighth part of the second are in the ratio 3 : 4. The first part is
(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 36
(d) 40
Answer:
111. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 8 : 5 and 5:2, respectively. The ratio in which these two mixtures be mixed to get a new mixture containing 69 3/13% milk is
(a) 2 : 7
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 5 : 2
(d) 5 : 7
Answer:
112. The speed of a train going from Nagpur to Allahabad is 100 km/h. While its speed is 150 km/h, when coming back from Allahabad to Nagpur. Then, the average speed during the whole journey is
(a) 135 km/h
(b) 120 km/h
(c) 125 km/h
(d) 140 km/h
Answer:
113. Ram aims to score an average of 80 marks in quarterly and half yearly exams. But his average in quarterly is 3 marks less than his target and that in half yearly is 2 marks more than his aim. The difference between the total marks scored in both the exams is 25. Total marks aimed by Ram is
(a) 380
(b) 400
(c)410
(d)420
Answer:
114. A library has an average number of 510 visitors on Sunday and 240 on other days. The average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with Sunday is
(a) 290
(b) 285
(c)295
(d)300
Answer:
115.A book vendor sold a book at a loss of 20%. Had he sold it for Rs 108 more, he would have earned a profit of 30%. Find the cost price of the book.
(a) Rs 432
(b) Rs 216
(c) Rs 648
(d) Rs 240
Answer:
116. A retailer buys a radio for Rs 225. His overhead expenses are Rs 15. He sells the radio for Rs 300. The profit per cent of the retailer is
(a) 33 1/3%
(b) 25%
(c) 26 2/3%
(d) 20%
Answer:
117. A shopkeeper bought 200 articles, each costing same. He sold 30% of the articles at 20% profit and the remaining at 10% profit. If the total profit made by him is Rs 2600, find the cost price of one article,
(a)Rs 100
(b)Rs 200
(c)Rs 1300
(d)Rs 2600
Answer:
118. Two candidates contested in an election. One got 60% of the votes and won by 1600 votes. What is the number of votes polled?
(a) 7500
(b) 9000
(c) 8000
(d) 10000
Answer:
119. While purchasing one item costing Rs 400, one has to pay sales tax at 7% and on another costing Rs 6400, the sales tax was 9%. The per cent of sales tax one has to pay, taking these items together on an average is
(a) 8%
(b)8 13/17%
(c)8 15/17%
(d)8 1/2%
Answer:
120. A car covers a certain distance going at a speed of 60 km/h and returns to the starting point at a speed of 40 km/h. The average speed for the whole journey is
(a) 48 km/h
(b) 50 km/h
(c) 45 km/h
(d) 40 km/h
Answer:
121. The speed of a stream is 3 km/h and the speed of a man in still water is 5 km/h. The time taken by the man to swim 26 km downstream is
(a) 5 1/5h
(b) 8 2/3h
(c) 3 1/4h
(d) 13 h
Answer:
122. A certain scheme of investment in simple interest declares that it triples the investment in 8 yr. If you want to quadruple your money through that scheme, you have to invest it for
(a) 12 yr
(b) 11 yr 6 months
(c) 10 yr 8 months
(d) 10 yr
Answer:
123. If the population of a town is 64000 and its annual increase is 10%, then its correct population at the end of 3 yr will be
(a) 85100
(b) 80000
(c) 85184
(d) 85000
Answer:
124. If the slant height of a right pyramid with square base is 4 m and the total slant surface of the pyramid is 12 sq m, then the ratio of total slant surface and area of the base is
(a) 12: 3
(b) 16 : 3
(c) 24 : 5
(d) 32 : 9
Answer:
125. A hemispherical cup of radius 4 cm is filled to the brim with coffee. The coffee is then poured into a vertical cone of radius 8 cm and height 16 cm. The percentage of the volume of the cone that remains empty is
(a) 88.2%
(b) 87.5%
(c) 80.5%
(d) 81.6%
Answer:
126. The radius of the base of a right circular cone is doubled keeping its height fixed. The volume of the cone will be
(a) double of the previous volume
(b) three times of the previous volume
(c) four times of the previous volume
(d) √2 times of the previous volume
Answer:
127. A sphere and a hemisphere have the same volume. The ratio of their curved surface areas is
(a)21/3:1
(b)2-3/2:1
(c)22/3:1
(d)4-2/3:1
Answer:
128. The ratio of sides of a triangle is 3 : 4 : 5. If area of the triangle is 72 sq units, then the length of the smallest side is
(a) 3√3 units
(b) 4√3 units
(c) 5√3 units
(d)6√3 units
Answer:
129. The radii of two circles are 5 cm and 12 cm. The area of a third circle is equal to the sum of the areas of the two circles. The radius of the third circle is
(a) 17 cm
(b)13cm
(c) 21 cm
(d)30cm
Answer:
130. An equation whose graph passes through the origin, out of the given equations
2x+3y = 2,2x-3y = 3,-2x+3y = 5 and 2x+3y = 0 is
(a)2x+3y=2
(b)2x-3y=3
(c)-2x+3y=5
(d)2x+3y=0
Answer:
(d) Any equation through origin must satisfy the point (0, 0) and only equation 2x + 3y =0 satisfies the above point.
131. If x—y=2,xy=24,then the value of (x2 + y2)is
(a) 52
(b) 25
(c) 36
(d) 63
Answer:
132.If a3 -b3 =56 and a-b=2, then value of a2 +b2 will be
(a) 5
(b) 48
(c) 20
(d) 22
Answer:
133. The value of (x + y + z)3 – (y + z – x)3 -(z + x-y)3 -(x+y-z)3 is
(a) 0
(c) 24 xyz
(b) 12 xyz
(d) 36 xyz
Answer:
134.A unique circle can always be drawn through x number of given non-collinear points, then x must be
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) A unique circle can always be drawn from 3 non-collinear points.
135. If ΔABC is similar to ΔDEF, such that ∠A=47°, ∠E=63°, then ∠C is equal to
(a) 37°
(b) 40°
(c) 70°
(d) 65°
Answer:
136.ABCD is a quadrilateral inscribed in a circle with centre O. If ∠COD=120° and ∠BAC=30°, then ∠BCD is
(a) 60°
(b) 75°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Answer:
137.ABCD is a trapezium whose side AD is parallel to BC. Diagonals AC and BD intersect at O. If AO=3,CO = x-3,BO =3x-19 and DO = x-5 , the value (s) of x will be
(a) 8, 9
(b) 7, 6
(c) 12, 6
(d) 7,10
Answer:
138.
Answer:
139.
Answer:
140.There are two temples, one on each bank of a river, just opposite to each other. One temple is 54 m high. From the top of this temple, the angles of depression of the top and the foot of the other temple are 30° and 60°, respectively. The height of the temple is
(a) 18√3 m
(b) 18m
(c) 36 m
(d) 36√3 m
Answer:
Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) Study the chart and answer the following questions.
The pie chart given below shows the number of students enrolled in a school in different activities. Total number of students in the school is 1200.
141. What is the total number of students enrolled in Debating club and HRD club?
(a) 72
(b) 144
(c) 216
(d) 288
Answer:
142. What is the ratio of number of students enrolled in Scout and Red cross activities together to those enrolled in Debating club activities?
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 3 :1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1 : 4
Answer:
143. How many students are enrolled in NCC activities?
(a) 240
(b) 180
(c) 120
(d) 72
Answer:
144. The number of students enrolled in Eco club is, what per cent of those enrolled in Red cross activities?
(a) 104.76%
(b) 94.24%
(c) 95.45%
(d) 82.45%
Answer:
145. Which two clubs have the enrolment in the ratio of 2:1?
(a) Debating club, Eco club
(b) (Eco club, HRD club
(c) Eco club, NCC
(d) HRD club, Eco club
Answer:
Directions (Q.Nos. 146-150) Study the chart and answer the following questions.
The following bar chart shows the sales of company XYZ (in Rs crore).
146. Total sales in 2nd and 3rd years together is
(a) 2488 crore
(b) 2688 crore
(c) 2888 crore
(d) 2788 crore
Answer:
147. The 2nd least sale is in the year
(a) 4th
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 6th
Answer:
(c) 2nd last year sale is in 3rd year.
148. The 2nd highest sale is in the year
(a) 7th
(b) 10th
(c) 9th
(d) 8th
Answer:
(b) 2nd highest sale is in 10th year.
149. The sale in the 4th year is less than the sale in the 8th year, by
(a) 3608 crore
(b) 3504 crore
(c) 3127 crore
(d) 3427 crore
Answer:
150. The mean of the highest and the lowest sale (in Rs crore) is
(a)4922
(b)4922.5
(c)4827
(d)4365
Answer:
Part IV General Awareness
151. Monetary policy in India is formulated by
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) CLB
(d) Finance Ministry
Answer:
(a) Monetary policy in India is formulated by Reserve Bank of India. Open market function, sales of securities etc., are the example of Monetary policy.
152. Consumer’s surplus is the highest in the case of
(a) luxuries
(b) comforts
(c) necessities
(d) durable goods
Answer:
(c) When the necessities of consumer increase, he try to buy goods at all rates. This Result in increase of Consumer’s Surplus.
153. Real wage is
Answer:
154. Which one of the following pairs of goods is an example for joint supply?
(a) Ink and Pen
(b) Tooth brush and Paste
(c) Wool and Mutton
(d) Coffee and Tea
Answer:
(c) Joint supply is the process of fulfilling two or more requirement from one single source. For example sheep is used for milk, flesh, wool.
155. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer:
(a) The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President of India. The tenure of CEC is 6 years or till he get 65 years of age, which ever he gets first.
156. Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) President of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Vice-President of India
Answer:
(d) Vice-President of India is the presiding officer of the upper house of the Parliament. Recently, Mr Hamid Ansari is the Presiding Officer of Rajya Sabha, elected for the form of 5 years.
157. Who founded the Republican Party of India?
(a) Mulji Vaishya
(b) Dr. B R Ambedkar
(c) Sripad Dange
(d) Namboo Dripad
Answer:
(b) The Republican Party of India is founded by Dr. BR Ambedkar. It has its roots in Scheduled Castes Federation.
158. Non-alignment basically implies
(a) neutrality towards power blocks
(b) bringing peace and unity to the world
(c) being a third world power
(d) choosing its own policy
Answer:
(a) Non-Alignment Movement is group of various countries which are not aligned in favour of or against of any country.
159. According to Preamble, the ultimate power lies in the hands of
(a) Constitution
(b) President
(c) People
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(c) According to the Preamble, we the people of India contain the ultimate power.
160. The High Court which has the distinction of having the first Woman Chief Justice is
(a) Allahabad High Court
(b) Delhi High Court
(c) Himachal Pradesh High Court
(d) Guwahati High Court
Answer:
(c) Smt Leela Saith was the first Woman Chief Justice to be elected for Himachal Pradesh High Court. She was an advocate in Delhi High Court.
161. Who was the first Muslim President of Indian National Congress?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Hassan Imam
(c) M A Ansari
(d) Badruddin Tyabji
Answer:
(d) Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim President of Indian National Congress. He became the President in 1887.
162. Who among the following was defeated by Prithvi Raj Chauhan in the first battle of Tarain?
(a) Mohammad Gauri
(b) Mahmud of Ghazni
(c) lltutmish
(d) Balban
Answer:
(a) The first Battle of Tarain was fought in 1191 between Prithvi Raj Chauhan and Mohammad Gauri. In which Prithvi Raj Chauhan defeated Mohammad Gauri.
163. Who among the following was the last Delhi Sultan?
(a) Daulat Khan Lodi
(b) Rana Sanga
(c) Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Sikandar Lodi
Answer:
(c) Ibrahim Lodhi was the last Sultan of Delhi. In the First Battle of Panipat (1526), Babar defeated Ibrahim Lodhi.
164. The policy of racial discrimination followed in South Africa was called
(a) Civil Rights Movement
(b) Apartheid
(c) Suffrage
(d) Non-Aligned
Answer:
(b) Apartheid is the policy adopted by white inhabitant to suppress black inhabitants, in South Africa.
165. Krishnadevaraya built the Krishnaswami temple in Hampi, which is situated in the present state of
(a) Calcutta
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(d) Hampi is a famous place and Krishnaswami temple situated in Karnataka.
166. Which countries are separated by the 49th parallel?
(a) USA and Mexico
(b) France and Germany
(c) Russia and China
(d) USA and Canada
Answer:
(d) USA and Canada are separated by 49th parallel line.
167. Gurushikhar is a/the
(a) great guru of sikhs
(b) famous hunting spot of Himalayas
(c) highest peak of the Aravallis
(d) Shipping Yard of Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Gurushikhar is a highest peak of the Aravallis Mountain Range. Aravallis Mountain Range is the oldest Mountain Range of India.
168. Amount of water vapour (gaseous) in a given volume of air (cubic metre) is known as
(a) relative humidity
(b) absolute humidity
(c) specific humidity
(d) mixing ratio
Answer:
(b) Absolute humidity is estimed by the amount of water vapour present in air.
Absolute humidity = Volume of air/Water vapour
169. ‘Tidal forest’ is otherwise called as
(a) Monsoon forest
(b) Mangrove forest
(c) Coniferous forest
(d) Evergreen forest
Answer:
(b) Mangrove forest is also known as ‘Tidal forest’.
170. In which state is Jog Falls located?
(a) Maharashtra
(b)Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Jog Fall is located in Karnataka. Jog Fall is the highest water fall of India.
171. Flowerless plants are termed as
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Thallophytes
(c) Cryptogams
(d) Phanerogams
Answer:
(c) The plants, which do not contain flower are called Cryptogams.
172. What is a sponge?
(a) A plant
(b) An animal
(c) A fungus
(d) A fossil
Answer:
(b) A sponge is an animal. The hair of this animals are used to make different type of brushes.
173. Excess amount of absorbed water by plants is liberated out by
(a) osmosis
(b) diffusion
(c) transpiration
(d) evaporation
Answer:
(c) Excess amount of water, absorbed by plants are liberated through the process of transpiration of the leaves.
174. Type of vertebrate animal which creep and crawl are called
(a) amphibians
(b) mollusks
(c) reptilians
(d) mammalians
Answer:
(c) Reptiles are the animal which creep and crawl.
175. The only plant cells without nuclei among the following are
(a) root hairs
(b) companion cells
(c) trecheid cells
(d) cambium cells
Answer:
(c) Trecheid cells are dead at maturity so, if doesn’t have nuclei.
176. Which of the following enzymes aids in coagulation of blood?
(a) Pepsin
(b) Rennin
(c) Amylase
(d) Tryptase
Answer:
(a) Enzymes aids in Cogultim of blood is pepsin.
177. Which of the following is a good conductor of heat but bad conductor of electricity?
(a) Asbestos
(b) Celluloid
(c) Paraffin wax
(d) Mica
Answer:
(d) Mica is a good conductor of heat and bad conductor of electricity.
178. For which of the following substances, the resistance decreases with increase in temperature?
(a) Copper
(b) Nichrome
(c) Platinum
(d) Pure silicon
Answer:
(d) We use silicon material in integrated circuits because when the temperature via these chips increases the resistance decreases.
179. When a running car stops suddenly, the passengers tends to lean forward because of
(a) inertia of rest
(b) inertia of motion
(c) gravitational force
(d) centrifugal force
Answer:
(b) When a running vehicle, stops at once, the body inside the vechicle, for a little while remains in motion. This result to tends the body to lean forward. This phenomena is known as ‘Inertia of Motion’.
180. A Floppy Disc can store…….. data.
(a) 1.44 MB
(b) 1.44 KB
(c) 1.44 GB
(d) 1.44 Bytes
Answer:
(a) A floppy disk of size 3 1/2 can store 1.44 MB of data.
181. The rate at which scanning is repeated in a CRT is called .
(a) resolution
(b) pitch
(c) bandwidth
(d) refresh rate
Answer:
(d) Refresh rate is the process to re-appear the screen with a little instant of time again and again.
182. Pick the odd one out
(a) Worms
(b) Trojan horse
(c) Virus
(d) Java clients
Answer:
(d) Worms, Trojan horse, Virus are the programme used to harm the computer. These all are malicious programme. Java
client is differ from all these.
183. Substances which are used to bring down the temperature in high fever condition are called
(a) Pyretics
(b) Antipyretics
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Antiseptics
Answer:
(b) Antipyretics are used to slow down the temperature of the body.
184. Substance used as an anti-freeze in radiators of automobiles is
(a) methyl alcohol
(b) ethyl alcohol
(c) ethyl alcohol and H20
(d) methyl alcohol and H20
Answer:
(c) Ethyl alcohol and water (H20) are used as an anti-freeze in radiators of automobiles.
185. Alcohol prepared by the distillation of wood is
(a) methyl alcohol
(b) ethyl alcohol
(c) glycerol
(d) propyl alcohol
Answer:
(a) Methyl alcohol, is a alcohol prepared by the distillation of wood in the absence of oxygen.
186. All the ecosystems taken together in a geographical area form a bigger unit called
(a) territory
(b) biome
(c) community
(d) biosphere
Answer:
(d) Biosphere is a combination of different ecosystems.
187. Environmental pollution can be controlled by
(a) checking atomic blasts
(b) manufacturing electric vehicles
(c) sewage treatment
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Environmental pollution can be polluted by checking atomic blasts, manufacturing electric vehicles and sewage treatment. So option (d) is correct.
188. Least audible sound for most of the human ear is
(a) 0.0002 μ bar
(b) 0.005 μ bar
(c) 5.0 μ bar
(d) 10.0 μ bar
Answer:(a) 0.0002 μ bar is least audible sound for most of the human ear. Below it we can’t hear.
189. Bio-diesel is mostly produced by
(a) Malvaceae
(b) Liliaceae
(c) Euphorbiaceae
(d) Myrtaceae
Answer:
(c)
190. The function of sedimentation tank in sewage treatment is to
(a) remove water content
(b) aerate the sewage
(c) remove suspended solids
(d) disinfect the sewage
Answer:
(c) Sedimentation tank is used to remove suspended solids from sewage.
191. The Spice-Garden of India is
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Asom
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
(b) Kerala is known as ‘Spice-City’, Spice-Garden of India.
192. Nurjahan’s real name was
(a) Mumtaz Mahal
(b) Ladli Begum
(c) Jahanara
(d) Mehr-un-Nisaa
Answer:
(d) Nurjahan is also known as Mehr-un-Nisaa. She was the first lady, who introduced coins from her name. She belonged to Mugal Emperor.
193. Which of the following is the third largest country in population after China and India?
(a) United States of America .
(b) Indonesia
(c) Japan
(d) Bangladesh .
Answer:
(a) United State of America has 3rd place in the list of largest populated countries
194. The most popular festival in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Onam
(b) Bihu
(c) Pongal
(d) Gudipadwa
Answer:
(c) Pongal is the most popular festival celebrated in Tamil Nadu.
195. As per 2011 Census data, the child sex ratio has come down from 927 to
(a) 920
(b) 917
(C) 914
(d) 904
Answer:
(c) As per the Census data of 2011, the Child Sex Ratio is down to 914. In 2001, it was 927. Haryana is the state with highest Child Sex Ratio.
196. Who advocated the adoption of ‘PURA’ model to eradicate rural poverty?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Dr. A PJ Abdul Kalam
(c) A M Khusro
(d) M S Swaminathan
Answer:
(b) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam advocated the adoption of ‘PURA’ model. It was implemented during 2004-05 within seven clusters.
197. Who made history by winning 8 gold medals in the Beijing Olympics in one event?
(a) Marcus Michael of France
(b) Michael Phelps of UK
(c) Ian Kraken of USA
(d) Van Lee Chu of China
Answer:
(b) Michael Phelps of UK, made a history by winning 8 Gold Medals in Beijing Olympics in 2008 in a single event of swimming.
198. Which of the following countries is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)?
(a) Russia
(b) USA
(c) Iran
(d) France
Answer:
(c) Iran is not a member of Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG). USA has introduced a ban on Iran and admitted other country not to trade with Iran.
199. Capital Market Regulator is
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(C) IRDA
(d) NSE
Answer:
(b) Capital Market Regulator in India is SEBI (Security Exchange Board of India). SEBI came into effect on 1988.
200. ‘Give me blood, I will give you freedom’. These words are attributed to
(a) Khudiram Bose
(b) Bhagat Singh .
(c) Veer Savarkar
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
(d)Give me blood, I will give you freedom’ is the slogan given by Subhash Chandra Bose in Singapore, when he was addressing Indian National Army, for Independence War of India.
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