SSC CHSL LDC/ DEO/ PSA Previous Year Solved Papers – 04 December, 2011
SSC CHSL Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level LDC & Data Entry Operator, Exam Solved Paper 04 December, 2011
Part I General Intelligence
Directions (Q.Nos. 1-9) Select the related word/ letter /number from the given alternatives.
1. Life : Death :: Beginning : ?
(b) As, ‘Death’ is opposite to ‘Life’. Similarly, ‘End’ is opposite to ‘Beginning’.
2. Leg : Knee :: Arm : ?
(c) As ‘Leg’ is joint with ‘Knee’. Similarly, ‘Arm’ is joint with ‘Elbow’.
3. Interrupt: Speak :: ?
(a) Shout: Yell
(b) Intrude: Enter
(c) Interfere: Clash
(d) Telephone: Telegraph
(b) As ‘Interrupt’ is related to ‘Speak’. Similarly, ‘Intrude’ is related to ’Enter’.
4. BD : CI:: DP : ?
5. ACE : GIK :: MOQ : ?
6. EGIK : LJHF :: SUWY : ?
7. 3 : 27 :: 4 : ?
8. 18 : 52 :: 12 : ?
9. 8 : 9 :: 64 : ?
Directions (Q.Nos. 10-18) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(b) Except ‘Steel’, all others are pure metal while steel is a mix metal.
(c) Except ‘Article’ all others are combination of various agenda while article is centralised on one agenda.
(d) Except ’Wax’, all others found in plasma state while ‘Wax’ is found in solid state.
(b) Except ‘E’ letter, all an letters are consonant while E is vowel letter.
(a) Except ‘ROPE’, all other groups of letters has one vowel while ‘ROPE’ have two vowels i.e., O and E.
(b) Only 220 is divisible by 11.
(d) Except ‘8-90’, all others one number is even and other number is odd while in ‘8-90’, both numbers are even.
(c) Except ’24-64′, all others both numbers are square number while in ’24-64′, only one number 64 is a square number.
19. Arrange the following words according to English Dictionary.
1. Advertise 2. Admit 3. Addition 4. Adhesive
(a) 1,2, 3,4
(b) 3,4,2; 1
(c) 3, 2, 4,1
Directions (Q.Nos. 20 and 21) Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order?
20. 1. Seed 2. Fruit 3. Plant 4. Food
(b) 1,4, 2,3
(c) 1,3, 2, 4
21. 1. Yearly 2. Fortnightly 3. Monthly 4. Daily 5. Weekly
(a) 5, 2, 3, 4,1
(b) 4, 5, 2, 3,1
(c) 2, 5, 4, 3,1
(d) 1,4, 5, 3,2
22. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it? .
KLM_, KL_N, K_MN, _LMN
Directions (Q.Nos. 23-26) Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete-the series.
23. BE, HK, NQ, ?
24. AZBY, CXDW, EVFU, ?
25. 24, 29, 39, ?, 74
26. 480, ?, 24, 8, 4
27. Find the wrong number in the given series.
6, 14, 31, 64, 137, 280
28. Pointing to a girl in a bus, a man tells his friend, “She is the daughter of the only son of my father’s wife”. How is the girl related to the man?
29. There are five friends Suresh, Kaushal, Madhur, Amit and Ramesh. Suresh is shorter than Kaushal but taller than Ramesh. Madhur is the tallest. Amit is a little shorter than Kaushal but little taller than Suresh. If they stand in the order of their heights, who will be the shortest?
30. From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
(b) ’RICHES’ word cannot be formed by using the given word ’HISTORICAL’ because ’E’ letter is not present in the given word.
31. A group of alphabets are given with each being assigned a number. These have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letters may be indicated from the given responses.
L R T O A I
1 2 3 4 5 6
32. If FIREWOOD is written as ERIFDOOW, how is FRACTION written as?
33. If RACKET is written as 813524 in a certain code, how would TRACK be written in that code?
34. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.
4 x 6 x 9 = 649
7 x 3 x 2=372
8 x 9 x 4=?
35. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation.
15 * 3 * 5 * 20 * 2
(a) + – = ÷
(b) x – = x
(c) + = + x
(d) x – = ÷
36. Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
24 + 6 x 3 ÷ 3 – 1=14
(a) + and x
(b) x and –
(c) ÷ and +
(d) – and ÷
Directions (Q.Nos. 37 and 38) Select the missing number from the given responses.
39. X walks Southwards and then turns right, then left and then right. In which direction is he moving now?
40. Kalpana travelled from point B straight to C, a distance of 8 ft. She tinned left and walked 5 ft away. Again, she turned left and walked 7 ft and finally tinned left and walked 5 ft. How far is she from the starting point?
(a) 3 ft
(b) 4 ft
(c) 1 ft
(d) 5 ft
41. Two statements are given followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements. Indicate your answer.
Statements Teaching is an art.
Drawing is also an art.
Conclusions I. All artists are teachers.
II. All artists know to draw pictures.
(a) Only Conclusion I follows
(b) Only Conclusion II follows
(c) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
(d) Both Conclusions I and II follow
42. Two statements are given followed by four Conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements. Indicate your answer.
Statements All goats are tigers.
All tigers are lions.
Conclusions I. All tigers are goats.
II. All lions are tigers.
III. No goat is a lion.
IV. No lion is a goat.
(a) Either It or III follows
(b) Either II or IV follows
(c) Either I or III follows
(d) None of the conclusions follow
43. A solid cube of 4 inches has been painted Red, Green and Black on pair of opposite faces. It has then been cut into one inch cubes. How many cubes have only four faces painted?
(a) None four faces painted when solid cube of 4 inches has been painted Red, Green and Black pair of opposite faces and cut into one inch cubes.
44. A, B, C, D and E are standing in a line facing North. E is standing 40 m left to B. A is standing 20 m left to C. D is standing 20 m right to E and 50 m right to C. What is the distance between A and B?
(a) 70 m
45. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
46. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
47. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
48. Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is held on the line AB?
49. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Sparrows, Birds and Mice?
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 00, 13 and ‘T’ can be represented by 56, 68, 89, etc. Identify the set for the word TEMPT.
(a) 56,43, 32,97,10
(b) 89, 43, 40,12, 44
(c) 10, 75, 32, 96, 78
Part II English Language
Directions (Q.Nos. 51-55) Some parts of the sentence have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error corresponding to the appropriate letter (a), (b) and (c). If a sentence is free from errors, mark the answer (d).
51. Supposing if (a)/ it rains (b)/ what shall we do? (c)/ No error (d)
52. The captain along with his team (a)/ are practising very hard (b)/ for the forthcoming match, (c)/ No error (d)
53. It was him (a)/ who came running (b)/ into the classroom, (c)/ No error (d)
54. The capital of Yemen (a)/ is situating (b)/ 2190 metre above the sea level, (c)/ No error (d)
55. Ram was (a)/ senior to (b)/ Sam in college, (c)/ No error (d)
Directions (Q.Nos. 56-60) In the questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
56. For a child, a blow___self-esteem is a terrible thing
57. The Greenland ice sheet is___at the rate of about 12 cubic miles a year.
58. The principal called___an explanation from the clerks.
59. The ___crowd gave the victorious team a tumultuous welcome.
60. It is our duty to get__the truth.
Directions (Q.Nos. 61-65) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
(a) Begin (b) Stop
(c) Create (d) Dull
Directions (Q.Nos. 66-70) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Directions (Q.Nos. 71-75) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom I Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom / Phrase.
71. To look down one’s nose
(a) To show anger
(b) To retaliate
(c) To insult in the presence of others
(d) To regard with contempt
72. To shed crocodile tears
(a) To weep profusely
(b) To pretend grief
(c) To grieve seriously
(d) To mock something
73. By putting two and two together
(a) To mix several things
(b) To make an arithmetical calculation
(c) To keep people in pairs
(d) To deduce from given facts
74. To go scot-free
(a) To walk like a native of Scotland
(b) To get something free
(c) To escape without punishment
(d) To save tax
75. At the eleventh hour
(a) At eleven o’clock
(b) At the wrong time
(c) At the last possible moment
(d) At the initial moment itself
Directions (Q.Nos. 76-80) A part of the sentence is underlined which may need improvement. Alternatives are given at (a), (b) and (c) below, which may be better option. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
76. The cheapest electronic good are manufactured in China.
(a) electronical good
(b) electrical good
(c) electronic goods
(d) No improvement
77. I have been living in Delhi from 1989.
(d) No improvement
78. He is a descendant fromthe Mughal royalty.
(d) No improvement
79. Mary would not go to the market unless I go with her.
(a) shall go
(c) would go
(d) No improvement
80. Flowers embellishment the beauty of our surroundings.
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q.Nos. 81-85) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
81. Murder of a man
82. Use of force or threats to get someone to agree to something
83. Animal that feeds on plants
84. A number of stars grouped together
(c) Solar system
85. Lasting only for a very short while
Directions (Q.Nos. 86-90) In the following questions, group of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
86. (a) Livelihood
Directions (Q.Nos. 91-100) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then, fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
It was a sudden decision. Three of us all (91) in the hostel decided to travel by train to (92) and witness the Republic Day Parade. The station was heavily (93) and there was a long queue before the ticket counter. (94) pretended sickness and persuaded the man nearest to the (95) to buy three more tickets – one for him and (96) for his sisters. No problem, therefore, in buying tickets. (97) train was already at the platform and there was (98) mad rush among the passengers to get on the coaches. Hari would not be worried by (99). He asked (100) to jump over the bumper between two coaches to get on to the other side.
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
101. If the sum of five consecutive integers is S, then the largest of those integers in terms of S is
102. The greatest among the numbers 3√2, 3√7, 6√5, 2√20 is
103. The denominator of a fraction is 3 more than its . numerator. If the numerator is increased by 7 and the denominator is decreased by 2, we obtain 2. The sum of numerator and denominator of the fraction is
104.47 is added to the product of 71 and an unknown number. The new number is divisible by 7, giving the quotient 98. The unknown number is a multiple of
105. The least number which, when divided by 16, 18, 20 and 25 leaves 4 as remainder in each case but when divided by 7 leaves no remainder is
106. If the measure of each interior angle of a regular polygon be 144°, the number of sides of the polygon is
107. The base of a right prism is an equilateral triangle of area 173 cm² and the volume of the prism is 10380 cm³. The area of the lateral surface of the prism is (use √3 = 1.73)
(a) 1200 cm²
(b) 2400 cm²
(c) 3600 cm²
(d) 4380 cm²
108. If a right circular cone is separated into solids of volumes V1, V2, V3 by two planes parallel to the base, which also trisect the altitude, then V1:V2: V3 is
(b) 1 : 4 : 6
(d) 1 : 7 : 19
109. The ratio of the volume of a cube and of a solid sphere is 363 : 49. The ratio of an edge of the cube and the radius of the sphere is (taking π = 22/7)
(b) 22 : 7
(c) 11 : 7
(d) 7 : 22
110. The ratio of the areas of a regular hexagon and an equilateral triangle having same perimeter is
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 6 :1
(c) 3 :2
(d) 1 :6
(c) Suppose, side of the equilateral triangle is a and the side of the regular hexagon is b.
111. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of the four walls, the volume of the hall, in cubic metres, is
112. A solid cylinder has total surface area of 462 cm². Its curved surface area is one-third of the total surface area. Then, the radius of the cylinder is
(a) 7 cm
(b) 3.5 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) 11 cm
113. If A and B together can finish a piece of work in 20 days, B and C in 10 days and C and A in 12 days, then A, B and C jointly can finish the same work in
(a)4 2/7 days
(b) 30 days
114. A can do a work in 5 days less than the time taken by B to do it. If both of them together take 11 1/9 days, then the time taken by B alone to do the same work (in days) is
115. The price of a certain television set is discounted by 10% and the reduced price is then discounted by 10%. This series of successive discounts is equivalent to a single discount of
116. Rahim bought a TV with 20% discount on list price. Had he bought it with 25% discount, he would have saved Rs 500. At what price did he buy the TV?
117. If a/3 = b/2, then value of 2a+3b/3a-2b is
118. Acid and water are mixed in a vessel A in the ratio of 5 : 2 and in the vessel B in the ratio of 8 : 5. In what proportion should quantities be taken out from the two vessels so as to form a mixture in which the acid and water will be in the ratio of 9 :4?
(b) 2 : 7
(c) 7 :4
(d) 2 :3
119. The average of x numbers is y and average of y numbers is x. Then, the average of all the numbers taken together is
120. A tabulator while calculating the average marks of 100 students of an examination, by mistake enters 68, instead of 86 and obtained the average as 58; the actual average marks of those students is
121. A shopkeeper bought pens at the rate of 7 for Rs 10 and sold them at a profit of 40%. How many pens would a customer get for Rs 10?
122. If the cost price of 10 articles is equal to the sales price of 16 articles, then the gain or loss per cent is
(b)37 1/2% profit
(d)37 1/2% loss
123. Three persons A, B and C whose salaries together amount to Rs 72000, spend 80%, 85% and 75% of their salaries respectively. If their savings are in the ratio 8:9: 20, then A’s salary is
124. Two solutions of 90% and 97% purity are mixed, resulting in 21 L of mixture of 94% purity. The quantity of the second solution in the resulting mixture, in litres, is
125. A boat travels 24 km upstream in 6 h and 20 km downstream in 4 h. Then, the speed of boat in still water and the speed of water current are respectively
(a) 4 km/h and 3 km/h
(b) 4.5 km/h and 0.5 km/h
(c) 4 km/h and 2 km/h
(d) 5 km/h and 2 km/h
126. If the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 3 yr at 10% per annum is Rs 31, the sum is
(a) Rs 500
(b) Rs 750
(c) Rs 1000
(d) Rs 1250
129. If x=b +c – 2a, y =c + a- 2b, z= a+b-2c, then the value of x2+y2-z2 + 2xy is
(b)a + b + c
(b)a + b-c
130. If (a -1)2 + (b+ 2)2 + (c + 1)2 = 0, then the value of 2a – 3b + 7c is
131. (y – z)3 + (z – x)3 + (x- y)3 is equal to
(a) 3 (y- z) (z+ x) (y-x)
(b) (x- y) (y+ z) (x- z)
(c) 3 (y-z) (z-x) (x-y)
(d) (y-z) (z-x) (x-y)
132. The side AB of a parallelogram ABCD is produced to E in such way that BE = AB. DE intersects BC at Q. The point Q divides BC in the ratio
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 :1
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 2 :1
133. If the chord of a circle of radius 5 cm is a tangent to a circle of radius 3 cm, both the circles being concentric, then the length of the chord is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 12.5 cm
134. O is the in centre of ΔABC and ∠A = 30°, then ∠BOC is
135.The length of two chords AB and AC of a circle are 8 cm and 6 cm and ∠BAC = 90°, then the radius of circle is
(a) 25 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 5 cm
136.The point D and E are taken on the sides AB and AC of ΔABC such that AD = 1/3 AB, AE = 1/3 AC. If the
length of BC is 15 cm, then the length of DE is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 5 cm
137.The simplified value of (sec A -cos A)² +(cosec A -sin A)² – (cot A -tan A)² is
138. If θ be an acute angle and 7 sin²θ +3 cos²θ =4, then the value of tan θ is
139.The value of sin²1° + sin²5° + sin²9° + … + sin²89° is
140. The angles of elevation of the top of a building from the top and bottom of a tree are x and y respectively. If the height of the tree is h m, then, in m, the height of the building is
Directions (Q.Nos. 142-146) Read the graph and answer the questions.
142. What is the difference in profit between 1983 and 1984 (in lakhs of rupees)?
(a) No profit
143. The number of years in which the income is more than the average income of the given years is
144. The ratio of the average income of all the years to the average profit is
(b) 48 : 17
(c) 12 : 7
(d) 6 : 5
Directions (Q.Nos. 147-150) Study the following table showing marks obtained by 6 candidates (A, B, C, D, E and F) in 6 tests conducted in one academic year and answer *the questions given below.
145. Percentage increase in profit in 1986 over 1982 is
146. The total income exceeds the total expenditure over the years 1982 to 1986 by
(a) 85 lakh
(b) 105 lakh
(c) 115 lakh
(d) 120 lakh
Directions (Q.Nos. 147-150) Study the following table showing marks obtained by 6 candidates (A, B, C, D, E and F) in 6 tests conducted in one academic year and answer the questions given below.
147. The total marks obtained by the candidates B and F together was the least in the Test
(d) Total marks obtained by B and F together in Test 1 = 70 + 62=132
Total marks obtained by B and F together in Test 2 = 62 + 66 = 128
Total marks obtained by B and F together in Test 3 =68+68 = 136
Total marks obtained by B and F together in Test 4 = 60 + 58 = 118
Total marks obtained by B and F together in Test 5 = 58 + 59 = 117
Total marks obtained by B and F together in Test 6 = 68 + 65 = 133
B and F got least marks in Test 5.
148. Which of the candidates has shown a steady improvement throughout the academic year?
(d) Candidate D has shown a steady improvement throughout the academic year.
149. Which candidate has shown maximum percentage improvement in Test 6 compared to Test 1?
(b) Candidate E has shown maximum percentage improvement in Test 6 compared to Test 1 i.e., 14.28%.
150. In which Test have all candidates performed better than in the previous Test?
(a) Test 6
(b) Test 5
(c) Test 4
(d) Test 2
(b) In Test 6, all candidates percentage better than in the previous Test 5.
Part IV General Awareness
151. Which one of the following is not an objective of fiscal policy in India?
(a) Full employment
(b) Price stability
(c) Equitable distribution of wealth and incomes
(d) Regulation of international trade
(d) Regulation of international trade is not an objective of Fiscal Policy in India.
152. Which one of the following is not a quantitative credit control measure of a Central Bank?
(a) Bank Rate Policy
(b) Open Market Operations
(c) Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) Moral Suasion
(d) Moral suasion is not a quantitative credit control measure of a Central Bank.
153. In which market structure is the demand curve of the market represented by the demand curve of the firm?
(d) Perfect competition
(a) In monopoly, market structure is the demand curve of the market represented by the demand curve of firm.
154. ‘Mixed Farming’ means
(a) sowing of both cash and food crops
(b) sowing of two or more crops in the same field
(c) sowing of two or more plants in alternate years
(d) rearing cattle and agriculture
(b) “Mixed Farming” means sowing of two or more crops in the same field.
155. Which of the following is deducted from NNP to arrive at NI?
(a) Indirect tax
(b) Capital consumption allowance
(a) Indirect Tax is deducted from NNP to arrive National Income.
156. The first Woman Governor of a State in free India was
(a) Mrs Sarojini Naidu
(b) Mrs Sucheta Kriplani
(c) Mrs Indira Gandhi
(d) Mrs Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(a) Mrs Sarojini Naidu was the first woman Governor of a state in free India.
157. Which of the following does not come under the purview of the Election Commission?
(a) To conduct the election of PM of India
(b) To conduct the election of President of India
(c) To give recognition to Political Parties
(d) To assign election symbols to the Political Parties
(a) To conduct the election of Prime Minister of India is not come under the purview of the Election Commission.
158. Which of the following is not associated with Parliament?
(d) Dismiss is not associated with Parliament.
159. Which is a Permanent Institution?
(b) Political Party
(c) Red Cross
(a) Family is a permanent institution.
160. Which one of the following is a hindrance to liberty and independence?
(a) Centralization is a hindrance to liberty and independence.
161.Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq was a failure because
(a) he was mad
(b) he was not a practical statesman
(c) he transferred the capital city
(d) he waged war with China
(b) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq was a failure because he was not a practical statesman.
162.Find out the correct match of the following.
(a) Asaf Khan — Akbar
(b) Adam Khan — Akbar
(c) Bairam Khan — Akbar
(d) Shaista Khan — Akbar
(c) Bairam Khan was the most faithful officer of
Humayun. Between 1556-1560, Akhar ruled under Bairam Khan’s regency.
163.Whom did Bal Gangadhar Tilak refer to as his Political Guru?
(a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Sisir Kumar Ghosh
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak refers to Sisir Kumar Ghosh as his political Guru.
164.Who introduced ‘doctrine of lapse’?
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Lytton
(c) Lord Dalhousie (1848-56) introduced ‘doctrine of lapse’.
165.Which one of the following are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1
(d) 2 and 4
(c) Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni plundered Somnath Temple in 1025.
166.Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the
(a) Earth on the Moon
(b) Earth on the Sun
(c) Sun and Moon on the Earth
(d) Moon on the Earth
(c) Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the Sun and Moon on the Earth.
167.Dry farming in India is extensively practised in
(a) Canara Plains
(b) Deccan Plateau
(c) Coromandal Plains
(d) Ganga Plains
(b) Dry farming in India is extensively practised in Deccan Plateau.
168. Match the following
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
(a) Jabalpur-Narmada, Paris-Siene, London- Thames and Lahore-Ravi are situated at the bank of these rivers.
169. The Kullu Valley is situated between
(a) Ladakh and Pirpanjal
(b) Ranjoti and Nag Tibba
(c) Lesser Himalayas and Siwalik
(d) Dhauladhar and Pirpanjal
(a) The Kulu Valley is situated between Ladakh and Pirpanjal.
170. Terrace farming is done
(a) on the slope of hills
(b) in dry regions
(c) on roof tops
(d) on mountain tops
(a) Terrace farming is done on the slope of hills.
171. The colour change in the Chameleon is due to the presence of
(b) The colour change in the Chameleon is due to the presence of Chromatophore.
172. The deficiency of iodine leads to
(b) The deficiency of iodine leads to goitre.
173. Two richest known sources of edible protein are
(a) meat and eggs
(b) some algae and other micro organisms
(c) soyabean and groundnut
(d) milk and leafy vegetables
(C) Two richest known sources of edible protein are soyabean and groundnut.
174. The saliva helps in the digestion of
(b) The saliva helps in the digestion of starch.
175. Which of the following correctly explains the phenomenon of ‘Test Tube Baby’?
(a) When every process of embryo formation is in the test tube
(b) When the embryo develops in a test tube
(c) When the fertilization is external and development is internal
(d) When the fertilization is internal and development is external
(c) In ‘Test Tube Baby’, the fertilization is external and development of embryo is internal.
176. Heart attack occurs due to
(a) bacterial attack on the heart
(b) stopping of heart beat
(c) lack of supply of blood to the heart itself
(d) impairment of heart’s working due to unknown reasons
(c) Heart attack occurs due to lack of supply of blood to the heart itself.
177. Direct conversion of solar energy with the use of a photovoltaic cell results in the production of
(a) optical energy
(b) electrical energy
(c) thermal energy
(d) mechanical energy
(b) Direct conversion of solar energy with the use of a photovoltaic cell results in the production of electrical energy.
178. A man inside an artificial satellite feels weightlessness because the force of attraction due to earth is
(a) zero at that place
(b) is balanced by the force of attraction due to moon
(c) equal to the centripetal force
(d) non-effective due to particular design of the satellite
(c) A man inside an artificial satellite feels weightlessness because the force of attraction due to earth is equal to the centripetal force.
179. When a detergent is added to pure water, its surface tension
(c) remains constant
(d) becomes infinite
(b) When a detergent is added to pure water, its surface tension decreases.
180. ‘Supernova’ is
(a) a comet
(b) an asteroid
(c) an exploding star
(d) a black hole
(c) ‘Supernova’ is an exploding star.
181. The device that converts computer output transmission over telephone lines is called
(d) I/O port
(c) The device that converts computer output ’ transmission over telephone lines is called modem.
182. A ‘bug’ in a programme is a
(d) Both ‘b’ and ’c’
(b) A ‘bug’ in a programme is a error.
183. Wood spirit is
(a) Methyl alcohol
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Butyl alcohol
(d) Propyl alcohol
(a) Wood spirit is methyl alcohol.
184. Which of the following processes is used for the production of Biodiesel?
(c) Transesterification process is used for the production of biodiesel.
185. One property of ammonia is
(a) it is insoluble in water
(b) it is a odourless gas
(c) it is a yellowish gas
(d) its aqueous solution turns red litmus to blue
(d) Aqueous solution of Ammonia turns red litmus to blue.
186. Find the odd one.
(d) Slaked lime
(d) Marble, Chalk and Limestone are various form of calcium carbonate but slaked lime is calcium hydroxide.
187. Biodegradable wastes can usually be converted into useful substances with the help of
(b) nuclear proteins
(c) radioactive substances
(b) Biodegradable wastes can usually be converted into useful substances with the help of nuclear proteins.
188. Of the following, which one pollutes the air of a big city?
(c) Lead pollutes the air, of a big city, Its release by vehicles.
189. Ultraviolet light of Sun’s radiation is prevented from reaching the Earth’s atmosphere by the layer of
(c) Ultraviolet light of Sun’s radiation is prevented from reaching the earth’s atmosphere by the layer of Ozone.
190.Greater population can be supported on the Earth only if we eat more
(c) plant products
(c) Greater population can be supported on the Earth only if we eat more plant products.
(a) an astronaut
(b) a space shuttle
(c) a power station
(d) an ancient astronomer
(d) Varahamihira is an ancient astronomer. He is one from the ‘Navratnas’ of Chandragupta II.
192. ‘Fire fighting clothes’ are made from
(b) Fire fighting clothes are made from Asbestos.
193. ‘Multinational’ is
(a) a person who has visited several countries
(b) a company operating in several countries
(c) a person having citizenship of several countries
(d) an organization set up to help developing countries
(b) A company which is operating in several countries called ‘multinational’.
194. Tummalapalli in Andhra Pradesh has recently come on the world map for its largest
(a) uranium deposits
(b) tungsten deposits
(c) coal deposits
(d) bauxite ore deposits
(a) Tummalapalli in Andhra Pradesh has recently come i on the world map for its largest Uranium deposits.
195. As per the provisional result of the 2011 Census, the density of population in India is
(d) As per the provisional result of the 2011 census, the density of population in India is 382.
196. The first Indian doubles due to win a Bronze Medal at the recent World Badminton Championship 2011 at London consisted of
(a) Jwala Gutta and Ashwini Ponappa
(b) Saina Nehwal and Jwala Gutta
(c) Saina Nehwal and Ashwini Ponappa
(d) Jwala Gutta and Harpreet Jadeja
(a) Jwala Gutta and Ashwini Ponappa first Indian doubles due to win a bronze medal at the recent World
Badmintonship 2011 at London.
197.‘Rath Yatra’ at Puri is celebrated in honour of
(a) Lord Rama
(b) Lord Shiva
(c) Lord Jagannath
(d) Lord Vishnu
(c) ‘Rath Yatra’ at Puri is celebrated in honour of Lord Jagannath.
198. Gagan Narang, whose name has been recommended for ‘Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award’ is a famous
(a) motor car racer
(c) air rifle shooter
(c) Gagah Narang is a famous Air Rifle Shooter. His name has been recommended for ‘Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award’.
199. The five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are
(a) Canada, China, Frances, USA, UK
(b) China, France, Russia, USA, UK
(c) Japan, Germany, Russia, USA, UK
(d) Germany, China, Russia, USA, UK
(b) China, France, Russia, USA and UK are the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council.
200. Which city has the headquarters of two railway zones in India?
(b) New Delhi
(c) Mumbai has the headquarters of Central Railway and West Railway.