SSC CHSL Practice Workbook – Practice Set 23

SSC CHSL LDC/ DEO/ PSA Practice Workbook –  Practice Set 23

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SSC CHSL Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level LDC & Data Entry Operator, Practice Workbook –  Practice Set 23

Part I General Intelligence

Directions (Q. Nos. 1 and 2) Find the odd number from the given alternatives.

1.
(a) 432
(b) 583
(c) 693
(d) 671

2.
(a) 14 – 49
(b) 16  -64
(c) 20 – 100
(d) 24 – 121

Directions (Q. Nos. 3-5) In the following questions, select the related letters/words/numbers from the given alternatives.

3. 85 : 42:: 139:?
(a) 68
(b) 69
(c) 70
(d) 67

4. AGMS: CIOU :: DJPV : ?
(a) BHNY
(b) STUV
(c) FLRX
(d) MNOP

5. CAT: DDY :: BIG:?
(a) CLL
(b) CLM
(c) CML
(d) CEP

6. Substitute the correct mathematical symbols in place of * in the following equation.
16*4*5*14*6
(a) ÷ – = x
(b) – x + =
(c) ÷ x = +
(d) ÷ + = –

7. If 2 x 2 = 16,2 x 3 = 36,2 x 4=64,then 2 x 6 = ?
(a) 72
(b) 80
(c) 96
(d) 144

8. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.
1. Noble 2. Nobilitary 3. Noblesse 4. Nobility 5. Nobble
(a) 1,4,3,2,5
(b) 3,4,1,2,5
(c) 5,2, 4,1,3
(d) 2, 4,3,5,1

9. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it? an_nn_ana_na_nan_a
(a) annan
(b) aanan
(c) nanna
(d) naana

10.From my house I walked 5 km towards North. I turned right and walked 3 km. Again I went 1 km to the South. How far am I from my house?
(a) 7 km
(b) 6 km
(c) 4 km
(d) 5 km

11. If EDITION is written as IDETNOI, then how is MEDICAL written in that code?
(a) DEMILAC
(b) LACIMED
(c) DIEMCAL
(d) CADILEM

12. If the letters in PRABA are coded as 27595 and THILAK are encoded 368451, then how can BHARATHI be coded?
(a) 96575368
(b) 57686535
(c) 96855368
(d) 37536689

13. Find out the missing number.

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

Directions (Q. Nos. 14-16) A series is given with one for more) term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

14. D,F, I, M,?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) T

15. AEI, BFJ,CGK, ?
(a) DHL
(b) DLH
(c) EIM
(d) LPT

16. 1, 6,15, ?, 45, 66, 91
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28

17. Which of the following figures represents the relationship between Building material, Cement and Wood:?

18. Four persons M, N, O and P are playing cards. M is on the right of N and P is on the left of O. Then, which of the following are partners?
(a) P and O
(b) M and P
(c) M and N
(d) N and P

19. A father tells his son, “I was three times of your present age when you were born.” If the father’s present age is 48 yr, how old was the boy 4 yr ago?
(a) 24 yr
(b) 8 yr
(c) 12 yr
(d) 16yr

20. A and B are brother and sister respectively. C is A’s father, D is C’s sister and E is D’s mother. How is B related to E?
(a) Granddaughter
(b) Great-granddaughter
(c) Aunt
(d) Daughter

21. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. REFORMATION
(a) REFRAIN
(b) MOTION
(c) REFRACT
(d) FORMAT

22. In the year 1996, the Republic day was celebrated on Friday. On which day was the Independence day celebrated in the year 2000?
(a) Tuesday
(b) Monday
(c) Friday
(d) Saturday

23. Two statements are given followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given statements.
Statements Some humane creatures are angels.
All doctors are angels.
Conclusions
I. Some humane creatures are doctors.
II. Some doctors are humane creatures.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither I nor II follows

24. Five birds Crow, Pigeon, Little Pigeon, Big Crow and Eagle fly one after other from a tree branch. Big Crow flew after Crow but is ahead of Eagle. Pigeon is between Crow and Big Crow. Little Pigeon is before Crow. Which bird is the last?
(a) Pigeon
(b) Big Crow
(c) Eagle
(d) None of these

25. If+ means ÷,- means x,÷ means + and x means – then 36 x 12 + 4 ÷ 6 + 2 – 3 = ?
(a) 42
(b) 18
(c) 40
(d) 2

Part II English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-28) In the following questions, four words are given, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt Find the wrongly spelt word

26.
(a) Rapport
(b) Support
(c) Repport
(d) Purport

27.
(a) Mendacious
(b) Obnoxcious
(c) Pernicious
(d) Ferocious

28.
(a) Pennetrate
(b) Irritate
(c) Hesitate
(d) .Perforate

Directions (Q. Nos. 29-31) In these questions, choose the word similar in meaning to the given word.

29. Imaginary
(a) Fabulous
(b) Fictitious
(c) Factitious
(d) Fallacious

30. Tranquil
(a) Tremendous
(b) Dynamic
(c) Treacherous
(d) Peaceful

31. Sordid
(a) Sore
(b) Unpleasant
(c) Splendid
(d) Dissatisfied

Directions (Q. Nos. 32-34) In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the paragraph are numbered as S1 and S6. The rest of the paragraph is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct.

32. S1. Martha taught English Literature.
P. She would involve them in roleplays.
Q. Her students were young learners.
R. This way the students found it easier to identify with the characters.
S. They fell into the age group of 14-16 years.
S6. They looked forward to attending her classes.
The proper sequence should be
(a) QSPR
(b) QPSR
(c) RSPQ
(d) SQRP

33. S1. Mary and Jo were amateur singers.
P. He called them for auditions the following week.
Q. So they approached a leading music company.
R. They wanted to try their luck at playback singing.
S. But the manager said that they would have to qualify an audition test.
S6. Fortunately they qualified the test.
The proper sequence should be
(a) RSPQ
(b) QPRS
(c)PRSQ
(d) RQSP

34. S1. Rubik’s Cube was most popular puzzle in 1980s.
P. His name Was Erno Rubik.
Q. In 1977 he produced the plastic version.
R. It was invented by an architect.
S. The first cube was made of wood.
S6. It won a prize at the Budapest International Fair.
The proper sequence should be
(a) QRPS
(b) RSPQ
(c) RPSQ
(d) PRSQ

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-37) In these questions, four alternatives are suggested for the idiom/phrase given in bold in the sentence. Choose he alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

35. He died in harness.
(a) ceased to live
(b) died of a disease
(c) died for his country
(d) died while working

36. All his schemes ended in smoke.
(a) came to nothing
(b) got on fire
(c) burnt up
(d) attracted everybody

37. The young boy was kicking his heels inspite of his mother’s stem warnings.
(a) playing happily
(b) kicking someone
(c) wasting time
(d) passing a gesture of disrespect

Directions (Q- Nos. 38-40) In the following questions, find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error,your answer is (d).

38. The company has ordered (a)/some (b)/new equipments(c)/No error (d)

39. If you had told me (a)/I would have helped you (b)/ solve the problem(c)/No error (d)

40.‘The Arabian Nights’(a)/are indeed (b)/an interesting book.(c) No error (d)

Directions (Q.Nos. 41-50) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out first read the passage over and try to understand what it is about Then, fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

Passage
The solar system has been a complicated wonder for the astronomers. This is a (41) to which we may never have the exact answer. Man has wondered (42) the age of the Earth (43) ancient times. There were all kinds of (44) that seemed to have the (45) But man could not begin to (46) about the Question scientifically until about 400years (47) When it was proved that the (48) revolved round the Sun and the Earth was a (49) of our Solar System, then scientists knew where to (50).

41.
(a) problem
(b) question
(c) matter
(d) query

42.
(a) around
(b) out
(c) about
(d) on

43.
(a) since
(b) during
(c) around
(d) from

44.
(a) ideas
(b) opinions
(c) stories
(d) matter

45.
(a) solution
(b) novel
(c) book
(d) answer

46.
(a) read
(b) think
(c) open
(d) guess

47.
(a) now
(b)time
(c) then
(d) ago

48.
(a) Moon
(b)time
(c) Earth
(d) Mars

49.
(a) part
(b) division
(c) opening
(d) centre

50.
(a) end
(b) begin
(c) sink
(d) work

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

51.A reduction of 20% in the price of an apple enables a man to buy 10 apples more for Rs 54. The reduced price of apple per dozen is
(a)Rs 4.32
(b)Rs 12.96
(c)Rs 10.80
(d)Rs 14.40

52.Price of a commodity has increased by 60%. By what per cent must a consumer reduce the consumption of the commodity so as not to increase the expenditure?
(a) 37
(b) 37.5
(c) 40.5
(d) 60

53. Rs 800 becomes Rs 956 in 3 yr at a certain fate of simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 4%, what amount will Rs 800 become in 3 yr?
(a)Rs 1020.80
(b)Rs 1025
(c)Rs 1052
(d)Rs 1050

54.If the difference between SI and CI for 2 yr on a sum of money lent at 5% is Rs 6, then the sum is
(a)Rs 2200
(b)Rs 2400
(c)Rs 2600
(d)Rs 2000

55. When 2³³ is divided by 10, the remainder will be
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d)8

56. The value of

is
(a)40/11
(b)43/11
(c)46/11
(d)41/11

57. If a and b are odd numbers, then which of the following is even?
(a) a + b + ab
(b) a + b -1
(c) a + b + 1
(d) a + b + 2ab

58. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 924 respectively. Then, the number of such pairs is.
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

59. Three numbers are in the ratio 3:4:5. The sum of the largest and the smallest equals the sum of the second and 52. The smallest number is
(a) 20
(b) 27
(c) 39
(d) 52

60. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, its area is increased by
(a) 125%
(b) 100%
(c) 75%
(d) 50%

61. A and B working separately can do a piece of work in 9 and 12 days, respectively , If they work for a day alternately with A beginning, the work would be completed in
(a) 10 2/3 days
(b) 10 1/2 days
(c) 10 1/4 days
(d) 10 1/3 days

62. If a wire is bent into the shape of a square, then the area of the square so formed is 81 cm². When the wire is rebent into a semicircular shape, then the area (in cm²) of the semicircle will be (take pi=22/7)
(a) 22
(b) 44
(c) 77
(d) 154

63. A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km. The diameter of the wheel (in cm) is
(a) 35
(b) 55
(c) 65
(d) 70

64. The single discount equal to three consecutive discounts of 10%, 12% and 5% is
(a) 26.27%
(b) 24.76%
(c) 9%
(d) 11%

65. The ratio of the ages of Ram and Rahim 10 yr ago was 1:3. The ratio of their ages 5 yr hence will be 2:3. Then, the ratio of their present ages is
(a) 1:2
(b) 3:5
(c) 3:4
(d) 2:5

66. Out of 4 numbers, whose average is 60, the first one is one-fourth of the sum of the last three. The first number is
(a) 15
(b) 45
(c) 48
(d) 60

67. If the cost price of 10 articles is equal to the selling price of 8 articles, then gain per cent is
(a) 10%
(b) 8%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%

68. An article is marked 40% above the cost price and a discount of 30% is allowed. What is the gain or loss percentage?
(a) 10% gain
(b) 5% gain
(c) 2% loss
(d) 12% loss

Directions (Q.Nos. 69 and 70) The following graph shows the production of wheat flour (in 1000 tonnes) by three Companies X, Y and Z over the year. Study the graph and answer questions given below.

69. What is the difference between the production of Company Z in 2004 and Company Y in 2000 (in thousand tonnes)?
(a) 2000
(b) 100
(c) 20
(d) 2

70. What is the ratio of the average production of Company X in the period 2002-2004 to the average production of Company Y in the same period?
(a) 1 :1
(b) 15 : 17
(c) 23 : 25
(d) 27 : 29

71. If 1 + cos²θ = 3sinθ cosθ, then the integral value of cotθ is(0<θ<π/2)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 3

72. The value of the following is 3(sin⁴θ + cos⁴θ) + 2(sin⁶θ + cos⁶θ) + 12 sin²θ cos²θ
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 0

73. If secθ + tanθ = 2 + √5, then the value of sinθ is (0° < θ < 90°)
(a)√3/2
(b)1/√5
(c)2/√5
(d)4/5

74. The internal bisectors of the ∠B and ∠C of the ΔABC, intersect at O. If ∠A = 100°, then the measure of ∠BOC is
(a) 110°
(b) 140°
(c) 120°
(d) 130°

75. In ΔABC, D and E are two mid-points of sides AB and AC, respectively. If ∠BAC = 40° and ∠ABC = 65°, then ∠CED is
(a) 75°
(b) 130°
(c) 125°
(d)105°

Part IV General Awareness

76. Which innovative discussion process is introduced by the Indian Parliament to the World Parliamentary systems?
(a) Question hour
(b) Zero hour
(c) Resolutions
(d) Presidential speech

77. The Judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of
(a) 60 yr
(b) 65 yr
(c) 62 yr
(d) 58 yr

78. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Thermosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Mesosphere

79. The Greek ambassador sent to Chandragupta Maurya’s court was
(a) Kautilya
(b) Seleucus Nicator
(c) Megasthenes
(d) Justin

80. Simon Commission was boycotted by the nationalist leaders of India because
(a) they felt that it was only an eyewash
(b) all the members of the Commission were English
(c) the members of the Commission were biased against India
(d) it did not meet the demands of the Indians

81. Who among the following British persons admitted the Revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Ellenborough
(d) Disraeli

82. A communication network which is used by large organizations over regional, national or global area is called
(a) LAN
(b) WAN
(c) MAN
(d) VAN

83. Who is authorized to issue coins in India?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Indian Overseas Bank

84. In the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which languages were added subsequently?
(a) English, Sindhi, Marathi, Sanskrit
(b) Sanskrit, Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri
(c) Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali
(d) Marathi, Oriya, Konkani, Nepali

85. Indian Parliament means
(a) Rajya Sabha—Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha—Lok Sabha—Prime Minister
(c) President of India—Rajya Sabha—Lok Sabha
(d) President of India—Vice-President of India—Lok Sabha—Rajya Sabha

86. Painting reached its highest level of development during the reign of
(a) Akbar
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan

87. The communal electorate was introduced for the first time in India in
(a) 1919
(b) 1935
(c) 1906
(d) 1909

88. The dance Kathakali is associated with the State of
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Odisha

89. Srinagar is located on the bank of the river
(a) Indus
(b) Jhelum
(c) Chenab
(d) Ravi

90. Who discovered Solar System?
(a) Newton
(b) John Hadley
(c) Copernicus
(d) Galileo

91. The concurrent List in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the Constitution of
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) Germany
(d) Australia

92. What is the chemical name of vinegar?
(a) Citric acid
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) Malic acid

93. Which of the following is not a property of heavy water?
(a) Boiling point of heavy water is lower than that of ordinary water
(b) Density of heavy water is higher than that of ordinary water
(c) Freezing point of heavy water is higher than that of ordinary water
(d) It produces corrosion

94. In which of the following processes is energy released?
(a) Respiration
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Ingestion
(d) Absorption

95.Animals living in the tree trunks are known as
(a) arboreal
(b) volant
(c) amphibious
(d) aquatic

96. Plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells is made up of
(a) phospholipid
(b) lipoprotein
(c) phospholipoprotein
(d) phosphoprotein

97. A concave lens always forms an image which is
(a) real and erect
(b) virtual and erect
(c) real and inverted
(d) virtual and inverted

98. One of the constituents of tear gas is
(a) ethane
(b) ethanol
(c) ether
(d) chloropicrin

99. Who was the founder of the ‘Servants of India Society’?
(a) G K Gokhale
(b) M G Ranade
(c) B G Tilak
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal

100. Who has been elected as President of the Prestigious Indian Statistical Institute?
(a) Vijay Kelkar
(b) C. Rangarajan
(c) Raghuram Rajan
(d) Urjit Patel

Answers